Nokea
Nurse Pedrito is teaching a client with Parkinson's disease on ways to prevent curvatures of the spine associated with the disease. To prevent spinal flexion, the nurse should tell the client to _________.
- A. Rest in supine position with his head elevated.
- B. Sleep only in dorsal recumbent position.
- C. Periodically lie in prone position without a neck pillow.
- D. Sleep on either side, but keep his back straight.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Periodically lie in prone position without a neck pillow. This position helps to prevent spinal flexion by promoting extension of the spine and stretching of the hip flexors. Prone positioning also helps maintain alignment of the spine and prevents contractures. Resting in supine position (choice A) with the head elevated does not promote spinal extension. Sleeping only in dorsal recumbent position (choice B) may lead to spinal flexion. Sleeping on either side (choice D) does not specifically address spinal flexion prevention.
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Outbreak of cases of typhoid fever occurs in the community. Nurse Keena should inform the residents that the transmission of the disease is through _______.
- A. A vector
- B. Blood and body fluids
- C. Food and water
- D. Air
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Food and water. Typhoid fever is primarily transmitted through contaminated food and water by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. The bacteria are shed in the feces of infected individuals and can contaminate water sources or food prepared with contaminated water. This transmission route aligns with the typical epidemiology of typhoid fever outbreaks.
Now, let's discuss why the other choices are incorrect:
A: A vector - Typhoid fever is not transmitted by a vector such as mosquitoes or ticks.
B: Blood and body fluids - Typhoid fever is not typically spread through blood or body fluids but rather through ingestion of contaminated food or water.
D: Air - Typhoid fever is not an airborne disease and is not transmitted through the air.
Which of the following situation is an example of incongruent message?
- A. When the nurse means what she says
- B. When the words and behavior of the nurse agree
- C. When what the nurse says and does do not agree
- D. When content and process agree
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Incongruent message occurs when verbal and nonverbal communication do not align.
Step 2: Choice C states "When what the nurse says and does do not agree," indicating a lack of alignment.
Step 3: This inconsistency can lead to confusion or mistrust in communication.
Step 4: Choices A, B, and D all describe situations with alignment between words and actions, making them congruent.
Summary: Choice C is correct as it exemplifies incongruent communication, while Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe congruent messages.
Latex allergy can be a type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity to plant proteins from the latex of rubber. It can manifest in its MOST severe form as _____.
- A. Pruritus, erythema and swelling
- B. Asthma
- C. Anaphylaxis
- D. Blisters and other skin lesions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is the MOST severe form of an allergic reaction, including latex allergy. It is a systemic, potentially life-threatening reaction that can involve multiple organ systems. Symptoms can include difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat, a rapid drop in blood pressure, and cardiovascular collapse. Pruritus, erythema, and swelling (choice A) are common symptoms of allergic reactions but not specific to anaphylaxis. Asthma (choice B) can be a manifestation of latex allergy but is not the most severe form. Blisters and other skin lesions (choice D) are not typical of anaphylaxis but can occur in some cases of contact dermatitis from latex exposure.
A patient presents with excessive thirst, large volumes of dilute urine, and low urine osmolality. Laboratory tests reveal hypernatremia and elevated serum osmolality. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diabetes insipidus. This condition is characterized by excessive thirst, large volumes of dilute urine, low urine osmolality, hypernatremia, and elevated serum osmolality. The underlying cause is a deficiency in or insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine properly. Hyperthyroidism (choice A) and hypothyroidism (choice B) do not directly affect urine concentration. While diabetes mellitus (choice C) can also present with polyuria and polydipsia, it would typically have high urine osmolality due to the presence of glucose. Therefore, diabetes insipidus is the most likely endocrine disorder responsible for these specific symptoms.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele? To ____________.
- A. Decrease risk of infection
- B. Correct the neurologic defect
- C. Prevent seizure disorders
- D. Prevent hydrocephalus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele is to correct the neurologic defect. This is because myelomeningocele is a type of neural tube defect where the spinal cord and its protective covering do not close properly. Surgical repair aims to close the opening in the spinal cord to prevent further damage, improve neurological function, and reduce the risk of complications such as paralysis and infection. The other choices are incorrect as they are not the primary goal of the surgery. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary reason. Seizure disorders (Choice C) and hydrocephalus (Choice D) may be associated complications but are not the main purpose of the surgical repair.