Nokea
Obstruction of the airway in the patient with asthma is caused by all of the following except:
- A. thick mucus.
- B. swelling of bronchial membranes.
- C. destruction of the alveolar wall.
- D. contraction of muscles surrounding the bronchi
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Obstruction of the airway in a patient with asthma is primarily caused by inflammation and narrowing of the airways due to a combination of factors such as thick mucus, swelling of bronchial membranes, and contraction of muscles surrounding the bronchi. Destruction of the alveolar wall is not a direct cause of airway obstruction in asthma patients; alveolar wall destruction is typically associated with conditions like emphysema. In asthma, the primary mechanisms contributing to airway obstruction are related to inflammation, mucus production, and bronchoconstriction.
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On what is successful breastfeeding most dependent?
- A. Mother's socioeconomic level
- B. Size of mother's breasts
- C. Mother's desire to breastfeed
- D. Birth weight of newborn
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Successful breastfeeding is most dependent on the mother's desire to breastfeed. A mother who is committed and motivated to breastfeed is more likely to overcome any challenges that may arise, such as difficulty latching, low milk supply, or lack of support. The mother's determination and willingness to persevere through any difficulties play a significant role in the success of breastfeeding. Additionally, a positive attitude and mindset can greatly impact the mother's breastfeeding experience and enhance the bond between the mother and baby.
Hepatoblastoma is a neoplasm of undifferentiated precursors of hepatocytes. It is of different histological classification; which type predict the MOST favorable outcome?
- A. mixed type of pure epithelial and mesenchymal elements
- B. type of pure epithelial histology
- C. type of mixed fetal and embryonal histology
- D. type of undifferentiated histology
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pure epithelial histology, particularly fetal type, is associated with the best prognosis.
Which statement is correct about childhood obesity?
- A. Heredity is an important factor in the development of obesity.
- B. Childhood obesity in the United States is decreasing.
- C. Childhood obesity is the result of inactivity.
- D. Childhood obesity can be attributed to an underlying disease in most cases.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Heredity is an important factor in the development of obesity. While lifestyle and environmental factors play a significant role in the development of obesity, genetics also play a crucial role. Research has shown that children with parents who are obese are more likely to be obese themselves. Genes can influence a person's metabolism, the way their body stores fat, and even their food preferences, making them more susceptible to obesity. However, it's important to note that heredity is just one factor, and obesity often results from a complex interaction between genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors.
A 25-year old with hepatitis may be anicteric and symptomless. In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is:
- A. dark urine
- B. occult blood in stools
- C. ascites
- D. anorexia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is anorexia. Anorexia refers to a decreased appetite or lack of interest in food, which is commonly seen in patients with liver diseases such as hepatitis. Anorexia in the setting of liver inflammation indicates a disruption in the normal metabolic processes of the liver. This symptom is often accompanied by general malaise, fatigue, and weight loss. Dark urine (choice A) may occur later in the disease progression due to the buildup of bilirubin in the blood. Occult blood in stools (choice B) may be a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can be a complication of advanced liver disease but is not typically an early symptom. Ascites (choice C) is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity and is usually a late sign of liver dysfunction.
A 5-year old boy presents with afebrile generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting for 5 minutes. Previously he was healthy and had no such problem. On examination there is no abnormality. Your plan of management should be:
- A. Start anticonvulsant therapy
- B. Request for an EEG and wait for its report
- C. Request for an EEG and start anticonvulsant therapy immediately
- D. Request for EEG and MRI brain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a first-time generalized seizure, an immediate EEG and starting anticonvulsant therapy is prudent to prevent recurrence, especially if the EEG shows epileptiform activity.