Nokea
On examination of a patient with disease onset 5 days ago the doctor suspected tularemia and prescribed the patient tularin intracutaneously. What is the purpose of this drug administration in the patient?
- A. Allergy diagnostics
- B. Prognosis for the disease
- C. Treatment
- D. Treatment evaluation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Treatment. Tularin is a specific immunizing agent used for the treatment of tularemia. The purpose of tularin administration in this patient is to provide a targeted treatment against the suspected tularemia infection. It helps the patient's immune system to recognize and fight against the bacteria causing the disease.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Allergy diagnostics - Tularin is not used for allergy diagnostics, as it is specifically indicated for tularemia treatment.
B: Prognosis for the disease - Tularin is not used to predict the outcome of the disease but rather to treat the infection.
D: Treatment evaluation - Tularin is not used for evaluating the effectiveness of treatment but for actively treating the tularemia infection.
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A 22-year-old patient is a clerk. His working day runs in a conditioned room. In summer he was taken by an acute disease with the following symptoms: fever, dyspnea, dry cough, pleural pain, myalgia, arthralgia. Objectively: moist rales on the right, pleural friction rub. X-ray picture showed infiltration of the inferior lobe. In blood: WBC - 11 · 109/l, stab neutrophils - 6%, segmented neutrophils - 70%, lymphocytes - 8%, ESR - 42 mm/h. What is the etiological factor pneumonia?
- A. Legionella
- B. Mycoplasma
- C. Streptococcus
- D. Staphylococcus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common etiological factor for community-acquired pneumonia in young adults. The symptoms described align with typical pneumococcal pneumonia presentation. Presence of pleural friction rub and infiltration in the X-ray support the diagnosis. The blood work showing elevated WBC count with a left shift (increased neutrophils and low lymphocytes) and elevated ESR is consistent with a bacterial infection. Legionella and Mycoplasma typically present with atypical pneumonia symptoms such as headache, confusion, and GI symptoms, which are not described in the case. Staphylococcus pneumonia is not a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in young adults.
Some of the viruses have a cubic type of symmetry, which in the shape of
- A. tetrahedral structure
- B. hexahedral structure
- C. dodecahedral structure
- D. icosahedral structure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: icosahedral structure. Icosahedral symmetry is common in viruses due to its efficient packing of genetic material. It consists of 20 equilateral triangular faces and 12 vertices. This symmetry allows viruses to have a stable structure and optimal capacity for encapsulating their genetic material.
A: Tetrahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 4 faces and is not commonly found in viruses.
B: Hexahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 6 faces and is not a common symmetry type in viruses.
C: Dodecahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 12 faces and is not typically seen in viruses.
In summary, the icosahedral structure is the correct choice due to its stability, efficient packing, and common presence in viral structures compared to the other options.
All is true for bacterial spores EXCEPT:
- A. They can deform the cell or not
- B. They can be terminal, subterminal and central
- C. They are used for cell division
- D. They are formed for 6-8h
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Bacterial spores are NOT used for cell division. Bacterial spores are dormant, resistant forms of bacteria that are formed in response to harsh environmental conditions. They are not involved in cell division but rather serve as a survival mechanism for the bacteria.
A: They can deform the cell or not - This is true. Bacterial spores can deform the cell or not depending on the conditions.
B: They can be terminal, subterminal, and central - This is true. Bacterial spores can be located at different positions within the bacterial cell.
D: They are formed for 6-8h - This is incorrect. The formation of bacterial spores can take variable time periods depending on the species and environmental conditions.
Which of the following statements for S. Aureus is FALSE
- A. it is always susceptible for penicillin
- B. around its colonies there is a beta hemolytic zone
- C. it produces hemolysins, leucocidins, enterotoxins
- D. has a positive catalase reaction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Staphylococcus aureus can develop resistance to penicillin over time due to the production of beta-lactamase enzymes. This resistance mechanism makes it no longer susceptible to penicillin. The other choices are correct: B) S. aureus can produce beta hemolysis, C) it produces various toxins like hemolysins, leucocidins, and enterotoxins, and D) it shows a positive catalase reaction due to the presence of catalase enzyme that converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen.
The binomial system of nomenclature was originally developed by
- A. Pasteur
- B. Linnaeus
- C. Martini
- D. Jenner
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Linnaeus. Linnaeus developed the binomial system of nomenclature in the 18th century. He introduced the use of a two-part naming system consisting of a genus name and a species name, known as binomial nomenclature. This system helps in organizing and categorizing living organisms systematically. Pasteur (choice A) is known for his contributions to microbiology, not nomenclature. Martini (choice C) and Jenner (choice D) are not associated with the development of the binomial system of nomenclature.