Nokea
On speculum examination of the cervix, it is found to be round and smooth. These findings suggest that the patient
- A. is a multipar
- C. has had previous vaginal deliveries.
- D. is nulliparous.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: is nulliparous. A round and smooth cervix typically indicates that the patient has not given birth before (nulliparous). This is because after vaginal deliveries, the cervix may appear irregular or have scarring. Choice A is incorrect because being a multipar (having multiple births) would likely result in changes to the cervix after birth. Choice C is incorrect because previous vaginal deliveries would usually lead to changes in the cervix as well. Choice B is incomplete and does not provide any relevant information.
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Ineffective or shallow infant latch with breastfeeding may lead to increased
- A. reflux in the infant
- B. milk let-down
- C. nipple pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Poor latch can cause nipple pain and damage, making breastfeeding uncomfortable for the mother.
The normal testicular temperature necessary for its optimal functioning is around _______ below the normal body temperature:
- A. 2-3°C
- B. 4-5°C
- C. 33-36°C
- D. 31-34°C
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2-3°C below the normal body temperature. Testicles need to be slightly cooler than the body's normal temperature for optimal functioning. This slight decrease in temperature helps in maintaining the viability of sperm production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a greater deviation from the body's normal temperature would be detrimental to sperm production. B: 4-5°C is too much of a decrease, while C: 33-36°C and D: 31-34°C are higher than the normal body temperature, which would hinder sperm production.
A 28-year-old patient presents with recurrent urinary tract infections and continuous wet sensation in her undergarments. On examination, the provider observes leaking of urine noted in the vagina. What structural disorder of the female reproductive system is most likely responsible for this condition?
- A. pelvic floor prolapse
- B. DES exposure
- C. vaginal septum
- D. bladder fistula
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: bladder fistula. A bladder fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and another organ, leading to urine leakage into the vagina. In this case, the continuous wet sensation and urine leakage observed in the vagina indicate a communication between the bladder and the vagina. Pelvic floor prolapse (choice A) can cause urinary incontinence but does not involve direct leakage of urine into the vagina. DES exposure (choice B) is associated with reproductive tract abnormalities but not specifically with urinary incontinence. A vaginal septum (choice C) is a congenital condition where the vagina is divided by a septum, which would not directly cause urine leakage into the vagina.
Which of the following structures is not involved with the development of the ova in the ovary?
- A. Corpus albicans
- B. Follicular cells
- C. Zona pellucida
- D. All of the above structures are involved in the development of the egg cell.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The corpus albicans is not involved in the development of ova.
Which treatment option minimizes the development of lymphedema in the surgical management of a patient with breast cancer?
- A. Radical mastectomy procedure
- B. Radiation therapy
- C. Sentinel lymph node mapping
- D. Ultrasound
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sentinel lymph node mapping. This procedure helps identify and remove only the lymph nodes most likely to contain cancer cells, reducing the risk of lymphedema. A: Radical mastectomy is an extensive surgery that may increase the risk of lymphedema. B: Radiation therapy can also contribute to lymphedema. D: Ultrasound is not a treatment option for minimizing lymphedema in breast cancer surgery. Therefore, C is the best choice for minimizing the development of lymphedema.