Nokea
On the third postpartum day a client tells the nurse that she feels sad and that she cries easily. The nurse should explain about which of the following?
- A. These feelings are normal and should diminish when the baby is a week or so old.
- B. The physician will likely order an antidepressant for the client to take at home.
- C. If the client focuses on the fact that she has a healthy baby, the feelings will cease.
- D. When the client is home with her family and friends, her sad feelings will disappear.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Postpartum blues are common and usually resolve within a week or two. Persistent sadness may indicate postpartum depression, but initial feelings are normal.
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Which complication could occur as a result of percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)?
- A. Postdates pregnancy
- B. Fetal bradycardia
- C. Placenta previa
- D. Uterine rupture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal bradycardia. During PUBS, a needle is inserted into the umbilical cord to obtain fetal blood for testing. This procedure carries a risk of causing fetal bradycardia, which is a decrease in the fetal heart rate. This can be a serious complication as it may indicate fetal distress. It is important to monitor the fetal heart rate during and after the procedure to detect and address any signs of bradycardia promptly.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Postdates pregnancy - PUBS is not known to cause postdates pregnancy.
C: Placenta previa - PUBS is not associated with the development of placenta previa.
D: Uterine rupture - PUBS does not typically lead to uterine rupture.
In summary, fetal bradycardia is the potential complication of PUBS due to the invasive nature of the procedure and the risk of affecting fetal well-being.
A nurse is completing a minimum data set. Which area is the nurse working?
- A. Nursing center
- B. Psychiatric facility
- C. Rehabilitation center
- D. Adult day care center
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nurses who work in a nursing center (nursing home or nursing facility) are required to complete a minimum data set on each patient. Minimum data set is not needed for psychiatric, rehabilitation, or adult day care centers.
The nurse is discussing the purpose of the physical examination with a patient at the first prenatal visit. What information does the nurse include in the discussion?
- A. The physical exam helps to confirm the patient's current health.
- B. The physical exam determines nutritional risk factors.
- C. The physical exam confirms the diagnosis of STIs.
- D. The physical exam includes urinalysis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the physical exam at the first prenatal visit aims to confirm the patient's current health status, assess baseline health indicators, and identify any potential risks or issues that may affect the pregnancy. This information is crucial for developing a personalized care plan for the patient and ensuring a healthy pregnancy outcome.
Choice B is incorrect because determining nutritional risk factors typically involves assessing dietary habits, weight, and specific nutrient deficiencies, which are not solely addressed through a physical exam.
Choice C is incorrect as confirming the diagnosis of STIs would require specific testing and not solely rely on a physical examination.
Choice D is incorrect because while urinalysis may be part of the physical exam, its primary purpose is not solely to include urinalysis but to comprehensively evaluate the patient's overall health.
A nurse is teaching the staff about managed care. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session?
- A. Managed care insures full coverage of health care costs.
- B. Managed care only assumes the financial risk involved.
- C. Managed care allows providers to focus on illness care.
- D. Managed care causes providers to focus on prevention.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Managed care describes health care systems in which the provider or the health care system receives a predetermined capitated (fixed amount) payment for each patient enrolled in the program. Therefore, the focus of care shifts from individual illness care to prevention, early intervention, and outpatient care.
When is the earliest interval that chorionic villus sampling (CVS) can be performed during pregnancy?
- A. 4 weeks
- B. 8 weeks
- C. 10 weeks
- D. 14 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10 weeks. CVS is typically performed between 10-12 weeks of gestation. At this time, there is enough fetal tissue for sampling without significant risk to the pregnancy. Performing CVS earlier (options A, B) may result in insufficient tissue for accurate testing, while performing it later (option D) may increase the risk of procedure-related complications. Option C provides the optimal balance between ensuring accurate results and minimizing potential risks to the pregnancy.