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One goal of Healthy People 2030 is to improve pregnancy planning and prevent unintended pregnancy. What is a negative outcome related to unintended pregnancy that is related to this HP goal?
- A. lost jobs related to inabilities to continue to work
- B. depression and anxiety
- C. increased BMI and unintentional weight gain
- D. increased health-care costs in the United States
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Depression and anxiety are negative outcomes related to unintended pregnancy that align with the goal of improving pregnancy planning and preventing unintended pregnancies in Healthy People 2030. Unintended pregnancies can lead to increased stress and mental health issues for individuals who may not have been prepared or ready for a pregnancy. This can result in higher levels of depression and anxiety, impacting both the individual's well-being and potentially their relationships and overall quality of life. By focusing on improving pregnancy planning and preventing unintended pregnancy, Healthy People 2030 aims to reduce these negative outcomes and promote better mental health outcomes for individuals and families.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which is a disadvantage of the progesterone-only contraception pill?
- A. Side effects could be increased for persons who are underweight.
- B. There could be a decrease in bone mineral density over time.
- C. They may cause irregular bleeding and spotting.
- D. Return to fertility after discontinuing the pill may take several months.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One of the main disadvantages of progesterone-only contraception pills is the potential decrease in bone mineral density over time with long-term use. Progesterone has been linked to a decrease in bone density, which can increase the risk of osteoporosis and fractures, particularly in women. It is important for individuals, especially those at higher risk for osteoporosis, to discuss this potential side effect with their healthcare provider before initiating progesterone-only contraception. Monitoring bone health and considering supplementation may be necessary for those using this type of contraception long-term.
A woman asks about the side effects of the contraceptive implant. Which of the following should the nurse include in the discussion?
- A. The implant will cause heavy menstrual bleeding.
- B. The implant may cause irregular bleeding patterns, including light spotting.
- C. The implant can cause weight gain.
- D. The implant may cause hair loss.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irregular bleeding, including spotting, is a common side effect of the contraceptive implant. Choice A is incorrect because the implant typically leads to lighter periods or no periods at all. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain is not a guaranteed side effect, though some women report it. Choice D is incorrect because hair loss is not commonly associated with the implant.
The nurse provides counseling on coitus interruptus. What important counseling should be included?
- A. The partners must communicate well to use this method.
- B. This method is 100 percent effective because semen does not enter the vagina.
- C. BBT must be used with this method.
- D. All persons are able to control ejaculate in time to withdraw.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The important counseling that should be included when discussing coitus interruptus (withdrawal method) is that the partners must communicate well to use this method effectively. Coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis from the vagina before ejaculation to prevent sperm from entering the woman's reproductive tract. Effective communication between partners is crucial to ensure that the method is used correctly and consistently. This method does not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), so it's also important to discuss alternative methods of contraception for STI prevention. The statement that this method is 100 percent effective is incorrect, as pre-ejaculate can contain sperm and there is a risk of pregnancy if withdrawal is not done correctly.
The nurse assesses a patient for medical eligibility for contraceptive use. What is the meaning of an MEC score of 1?
- A. There is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method.
- B. There is an unacceptable health risk if the contraceptive method is used.
- C. There is a risk that outweighs the advantages of the contraceptive method.
- D. There is an advantage of using a contraceptive method that outweighs any risk.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of medical eligibility for contraceptive use, an MEC (Medical Eligibility Criteria) score of 1 indicates that there are no restrictions for using the particular contraceptive method. A score of 1 suggests that the advantages of using the contraceptive method outweigh any potential risks, making it a safe and recommended choice for the patient. Therefore, a patient with an MEC score of 1 can use the contraceptive method without any concerns regarding health risks or restrictions.
A 26-year-old woman is interested in using an IUD for contraception. What is the primary advantage of using an IUD over other contraceptive methods?
- A. It requires no daily action from the patient once inserted.
- B. It provides immediate protection after insertion.
- C. It is effective immediately after the first sexual activity after insertion.
- D. It is effective only for 6 months before needing replacement.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: One of the primary advantages of the IUD is that it requires no daily action, making it a convenient and reliable method. Choice B is incorrect because it may take a few days for some types of IUDs to provide full protection. Choice C is incorrect because immediate protection may not be ensured immediately after insertion, especially for hormonal IUDs. Choice D is incorrect because IUDs typically last for several years, not just 6 months.