Nokea
Oral iron supplements are given for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the statement is true regarding the absorption of oral iron supplements?
- A. Absorption occurs in the large intestine
- B. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the iron absorption
- C. Ascorbic acids reduces iron absorption
- D. Absorption is increased in hereditary hemochromatosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because iron absorption primarily occurs in the duodenum and upper jejunum of the small intestine. This is where iron is absorbed into the bloodstream and utilized by the body. Absorption in the large intestine, as stated in choice A, is incorrect. Intrinsic factor, mentioned in choice B, is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12, not iron. Ascorbic acid actually enhances iron absorption, so choice C is incorrect. Absorption in hereditary hemochromatosis, as in choice D, is increased due to a genetic mutation causing excessive iron absorption, not with oral iron supplements.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes an aPTT level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Heparin
- C. Warfarin
- D. Erythropoietin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An aPTT level of 28 seconds indicates a shorter clotting time than normal, suggesting that the patient may be at risk for bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation with heparin. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider to adjust the heparin dosage to prevent bleeding complications.
A: Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication and does not affect aPTT levels.
C: Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist and primarily affects the PT/INR levels, not aPTT.
D: Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production and does not affect clotting parameters such as aPTT.
A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58,000/mm3 (58 × 109/L). What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage high-protein foods.
- B. Institute neutropenic precautions.
- C. Limit visitors to healthy adults.
- D. Place the client on safety precautions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the client on safety precautions. With a platelet count of 58,000/mm3, the client is at risk for bleeding due to thrombocytopenia. Placing the client on safety precautions will help prevent injuries and minimize bleeding risks. This includes using a soft-bristled toothbrush, avoiding IM injections, and using caution with activities that may cause trauma.
A: Encouraging high-protein foods is not directly related to managing the client's thrombocytopenia.
B: Neutropenic precautions are for clients with low white blood cell counts, not low platelet counts.
C: Limiting visitors to healthy adults is important for clients with compromised immune systems, not specifically for thrombocytopenia.
A patient who is undergoing consolidation therapy for the treatment of leukemia has been experiencing debilitating fatigue. How can the nurse best meet this patient's needs for physical activity?
- A. Teach the patient about the risks of immobility and the benefits of exercise.
- B. Assist the patient to a chair during awake times, as tolerated.
- C. Collaborate with the physical therapist to arrange for stair exercises.
- D. Teach the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assisting the patient to a chair during awake times allows for gradual physical activity, promoting mobility without overwhelming the patient. This option supports the patient's need for movement while considering their current level of fatigue.
A is incorrect because educating the patient about the benefits of exercise may not be feasible or appropriate given the patient's current fatigue levels.
C is incorrect as stair exercises may be too strenuous for a patient experiencing debilitating fatigue, potentially leading to further exhaustion and risk of injury.
D is incorrect because deep breathing and coughing exercises primarily focus on respiratory health and may not directly address the patient's need for physical activity to combat fatigue.
A nursing student is caring for a patient with acute myeloid leukemia who is preparing to undergo induction therapy. In preparing a plan of care for this patient, the student should assign the highest priority to which nursing diagnoses?
- A. Activity Intolerance
- B. Risk for Infection
- C. Acute Confusion
- D. Risk for Spiritual Distress
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Risk for Infection. During induction therapy for acute myeloid leukemia, the patient's immune system is compromised, making them highly susceptible to infections. Therefore, the highest priority nursing diagnosis should be addressing and preventing infections. This includes monitoring for signs of infection, implementing proper infection control measures, educating the patient and family on infection prevention, and administering prophylactic antibiotics as needed.
Choice A (Activity Intolerance) may be a concern due to the patient's underlying condition and treatment, but preventing infections takes precedence as it can lead to life-threatening complications. Choice C (Acute Confusion) and Choice D (Risk for Spiritual Distress) are important considerations but do not pose an immediate threat to the patient's health and safety compared to the risk of infection.
A 19-year old male patient with a history of acute lymphoblastic leukemia, currently 13 years from completion of therapy, presents for a fertility consultation. He is interested in his risk for infertility. Which of the following statements is true?
- A. A semen analysis at this point would provide accurate information about future fertility.
- B. Males can maintain gonadal function at higher cumulative alkylator dosages compared with females.
- C. He should have been offered sperm cryopreservation at diagnosis.
- D. His risk for testosterone deficiency is greater than his risk for infertility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A semen analysis at this point would provide accurate information about future fertility because it assesses sperm count, motility, and morphology, which are crucial indicators of fertility potential. This is important for the patient to understand his current fertility status and make informed decisions about future fertility preservation options.
Choice B is incorrect because males are also susceptible to gonadal toxicity from alkylating agents, and there is no evidence to suggest that they can maintain gonadal function at higher dosages compared to females.
Choice C is incorrect because sperm cryopreservation should ideally have been offered at the time of leukemia diagnosis, but it is not too late to assess current fertility status with a semen analysis.
Choice D is incorrect as the patient's primary concern is infertility, not testosterone deficiency, which is a different issue altogether.