Orchitis and sterility in male result as serious complication of
- A. rubella
- B. measles
- C. mumps
- D. diphtheria 126
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Orchitis refers to the inflammation of the testicles, which can occur as a complication of mumps infection in males. Mumps is a viral infection caused by the mumps virus, and one of the common complications of mumps in males is orchitis. Orchitis can lead to testicular damage and potentially result in sterility if both testicles are affected. It is essential for males to receive the MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine to prevent mumps infection and its associated complications, including orchitis and sterility.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the ff. descriptions by the nurse would best explain glaucoma to a patient?
- A. "There is an increase in the amount of vitreous humor."
- B. "There is an increase in the intraocular pressure."
- C. "There is a decrease in the amount of aqueous humor."
- D. "There is a decrease in the intraocular pressure."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve, usually due to high intraocular pressure (IOP). In glaucoma, there is an imbalance between the production and drainage of aqueous humor in the eye, leading to increased pressure inside the eye. This elevated pressure can cause damage to the optic nerve, which is essential for vision, resulting in vision loss. Therefore, the best description by the nurse to explain glaucoma to a patient would be that there is an increase in intraocular pressure (Choice B).
The nurse is conducting teaching for an adolescent being discharged to home after a renal transplant. The adolescent needs further teaching if which statement is made?
- A. "I will report any fever to my primary health care provider."
- B. "I am glad I only have to take the immunosuppressant medication for two weeks."
- C. "I will observe my incision for any redness or swelling."
- D. "I won't miss doing kidney dialysis every week."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The statement "I am glad I only have to take the immunosuppressant medication for two weeks" indicates a misunderstanding about the long-term nature of immunosuppressant therapy following a renal transplant. In reality, individuals who undergo a renal transplant need to take immunosuppressant medications for the rest of their lives to prevent rejection of the donor kidney. Failure to adhere to this medication regimen can result in rejection of the transplanted kidney. Therefore, this statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the adolescent understands the importance of lifelong immunosuppressant therapy.
Many factors in nasopharyngeal carcinoma patients may affect the prognosis. Which of the following carries the worst outcome?
- A. elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level
- B. advanced disease
- C. extensive cervical lymph node involvement
- D. evidence of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) DNA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevated LDH levels are strongly associated with aggressive disease and poor prognosis.
. Which of the following laboratory test results would suggest to the nurse that a client has a corticotrophin- secreting pituitary adenoma?
- A. High corticotropin and low cortisol levels
- B. high corticotropin and high cortisol levels
- C. Low corticotropin and high cortisol levels
- D. Low corticotropin and low cortisol levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma, also known as Cushing's disease, results in an overproduction of adrenocorticotropic hormone (corticotropin). This excess corticotropin stimulates the adrenal glands to produce increased levels of cortisol. Therefore, a client with a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma would typically exhibit high levels of both corticotropin and cortisol. Option B is the correct choice, as it indicates elevated levels of both hormones, suggesting the presence of a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma.
The nurse notes vigorous bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a chest-drainage system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to correct the bubbling?
- A. Examine the entire system and tubing for air leaks.
- B. Lower the level of suction.
- C. Nothing; vigorous bubbling is expected
- D. Ask the patient to cough forcefully.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should examine the entire system and tubing for air leaks when observing vigorous bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a chest-drainage system. Vigorous bubbling indicates that there is air escaping from the system, which can lead to suboptimal drainage and potential complications. By identifying and correcting any air leaks, the nurse can ensure the chest-drainage system functions effectively, allowing for proper drainage and the prevention of complications such as pneumothorax. Lowering the level of suction or asking the patient to cough forcefully would not address the underlying issue of air leaks and may not resolve the problem effectively.