Nokea
Organize the developmental stages in the correct order. Put a comma and space between each answer choice (a, b, c, d, etc.)
- A. Zygote
- B. Morula
- C. Blastocyst
- D. Embryo
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fetal development progresses through several stages: zygote, morula, blastocyst, embryo, and fetus. Each stage represents a critical phase in the formation and growth of the embryo.
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A 22-year-old woman presents to the labor and delivery unit in labor at 39 weeks gestation. Her cervix is 6 cm dilated and 100% effaced. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Prepare for delivery
- B. Administer pain relief medications
- C. Continue to monitor contractions and fetal heart rate
- D. Perform a vaginal examination to check for fetal descent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continue to monitor contractions and fetal heart rate. At 6 cm dilated and 100% effaced, the woman is in active labor, but delivery is not imminent. Monitoring contractions and fetal heart rate is crucial to ensure the progress of labor and fetal well-being. This step allows the nurse to assess for any signs of fetal distress or labor progression. Administering pain relief medications (B) can be considered based on the woman's pain level, but it is not the immediate priority. Preparing for delivery (A) is premature at this stage. Performing a vaginal examination (D) may not be necessary unless there are concerns about fetal descent or progress of labor.
The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who is 38 weeks gestation and reports feeling pelvic pressure and mild cramping. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Monitor the fetal heart rate and check for signs of labor.
- B. Instruct the patient to rest and monitor the symptoms.
- C. Assess the patient's blood pressure and urine for protein.
- D. Perform a pelvic exam to assess for cervical dilation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring the fetal heart rate and checking for signs of labor are essential in assessing the well-being of the fetus and determining if the patient is in active labor. This step helps the nurse identify any potential complications and take appropriate actions promptly.
Choice B is incorrect because simply instructing the patient to rest may not address the underlying cause of pelvic pressure and cramping.
Choice C is incorrect as assessing blood pressure and urine for protein is not the priority in this situation.
Choice D is incorrect because performing a pelvic exam should be done after monitoring fetal well-being and ruling out active labor.
A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. Which of the following is most important to monitor for during labor?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Precipitous delivery
- C. Preeclampsia
- D. Increased bleeding risk
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine, which can lead to complications for both the mother and baby during labor. Monitoring for signs of preeclampsia is crucial to ensure timely intervention and prevent adverse outcomes.
A: Hypotension is not typically a major concern in a patient with a history of hypertension during labor.
B: Precipitous delivery refers to an unusually fast labor, which can be managed but is not the most important issue to monitor for in this case.
D: Increased bleeding risk may be a concern, but preeclampsia poses a more immediate threat to the patient's health and requires closer monitoring.
In preparing a pregnant patient for a nonstress test (NST), which of the following should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Have the patient void prior to being placed on the fetal monitor because a full bladder will interfere with results.
- B. Maintain NPO status prior to testing.
- C. Position the patient for comfort, adjusting the tocotransducer belt to locate fetal heart rate.
- D. Have an infusion pump prepared with oxytocin per protocol for evaluation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient should be positioned comfortably, and the tocotransducer should be adjusted to obtain an accurate fetal heart rate reading.
A patient who is about to undergo a cesarean section for breech presentation without fetal distress asks her nurse what kind of anesthesia would be best for her. The nurse explains that which of the following is the preferred method of anesthesia in this nonemergent case?
- A. Spinal block
- B. Epidural block
- C. General anesthesia
- D. Intravenous sedation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinal block. In a non-emergent cesarean section for breech presentation without fetal distress, a spinal block is preferred due to its rapid onset, reliable anesthesia for surgical procedures, and minimal risk to the fetus. Spinal block provides adequate pain relief and muscle relaxation without affecting the mother's ability to breathe and interact with the newborn immediately after delivery.
Summary of other choices:
B: Epidural block - Epidural block may not provide a dense enough block for a cesarean section and might require more time to administer.
C: General anesthesia - General anesthesia poses more risks to both the mother and the fetus compared to regional anesthesia methods.
D: Intravenous sedation - Intravenous sedation may not provide sufficient anesthesia for a cesarean section and is not the preferred method for this type of surgery.