Nokea
Outermost layer of the uterus is
- A. Peritoneum
- B. Pericardium
- C. Perimetrium
- D. Pericyte
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perimetrium. The perimetrium is the outermost layer of the uterus and consists of a thin serous layer of connective tissue. This layer provides support and protection to the uterus.
Rationale:
1. Peritoneum (A) is the serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity, not the outermost layer of the uterus.
2. Pericardium (B) is the membranous sac that surrounds the heart, not related to the uterus.
3. Pericyte (D) is a type of cell found in blood vessels and involved in vascular function, not a layer of the uterus.
In summary, the perimetrium is the correct answer as it is the specific layer that forms the outer covering of the uterus, providing structural support and protection.
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Which question should the nurse ask when assessing a 60-yr-old patient who has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
- A. “Have you noticed any unusual discharge from your penis?”
- B. “Has there been any change in your sex life in the past year?”
- C. “Has there been a decrease in the force of your urinary stream?”
- D. “Have you been experiencing any difficulty in achieving an erection?”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct question to ask when assessing a 60-yr-old patient with a history of BPH is C: “Has there been a decrease in the force of your urinary stream?” This question is relevant as BPH commonly causes urinary symptoms like weak urinary stream. Asking about unusual discharge (A) is more relevant for assessing sexually transmitted infections. Inquiring about changes in sex life (B) and difficulty achieving an erection (D) are more related to erectile dysfunction, which may not be directly linked to BPH in this context.
After arriving for your shift in the emergency department (ED), you receive change-of-shift report about all of these clients. Which one do you need to assess first?
- A. A 19-year-old client with scrotal swelling and severe pain that has not decreased with elevation of the scrotum.
- B. A 25-year-old client who has a painless indurated lesion on the glans penis.
- C. A 44-year-old client with an elevated temperature, chills, and back pain associated with recurrent prostatitis.
- D. A 77-year-old client with abdominal pain and acute bladder distention.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Severe scrotal pain unrelieved by elevation suggests testicular torsion, a urologic emergency.
The process of creating female gametes is called ________.
- A. spermatogenesis
- B. oogenesis
- C. spermiogenesis
- D. cleavage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: oogenesis. Oogenesis is the process of creating female gametes (eggs) through meiosis in the ovaries. Spermatogenesis (A) is the process of creating male gametes (sperm). Spermiogenesis (C) is the final stage of spermatogenesis where spermatids mature into sperm. Cleavage (D) refers to the rapid cell divisions that occur after fertilization. Therefore, B is the correct answer as it specifically relates to the formation of female gametes.
What structure corresponds to the scrotum in the male?
- A. labia major
- B. labia minor
- C. pudendal cleft
- D. mons pubis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: labia major. The scrotum in males corresponds to the labia major in females as they both serve as protective structures for the reproductive organs. The labia major in females is analogous to the scrotum in males in terms of function and location. The other choices are incorrect because the labia minor (B) is a smaller structure located inside the labia major, the pudendal cleft (C) refers to the space between the labia major and labia minor, and the mons pubis (D) is a rounded, fatty area located over the pubic bone.
Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is caused by Treponema pallidum?
- A. Herpes
- B. Venereal warts
- C. Gonorrhea
- D. Syphilis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Syphilis is caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum.