Nokea
Oxygen therapy is prescribed as long term continuous therapy (more than 15 hours/day) to
- A. Improve QOL, reduce pulmonary arterial pressure and dyspnoea and increase survival
- B. Reduce respiratory effort caused by the damage to airways and lung parenchyma
- C. Increase patient comfort, reduce cyanosis and assist with sleeping
- D. Relieve anxiety related to breathlessness and reassure carer that the patient is receiving adequate oxygenation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Long-term O2 in COPD lifts life cuts lung pressure, eases breath, boosts survival, a proven lifeline. Effort's not the target; comfort's secondary; anxiety's a perk, not goal. Nurses push this, a chronic game-changer.
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A client with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting following each administration of chemotherapy. Which action, if taken by the nurse, is most appropriate?
- A. Have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present
- B. Offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy
- C. Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments
- D. Give the patient two ounces of a citrus fruit beverage during treatments
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chemo's gut punch severe vomiting bows to preemptive antiemetics, given 1 hour before, blunting nausea's peak, the most effective move per oncology standards. Big meals overload; crackers help post-, not during; citrus risks acid reflux. Nurses time antiemetics, syncing with chemo's onslaught, a proactive strike to ease this metastatic misery, trumping reactive nibbles or sips.
A client with cancer is admitted to a short-term rehabilitation facility. The nurse prepares to administer the client's oral chemotherapy medications. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Crush the medications if the client cannot swallow them.
- B. Give one medication at a time with a full glass of water.
- C. No special precautions are needed for these medications.
- D. Wear personal protective equipment when handling the medications.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oral chemotherapy drugs, like their IV counterparts, are hazardous due to their cytotoxic properties, posing risks to healthcare workers through skin contact or inhalation during handling. The most appropriate action is for the nurse to wear personal protective equipment (PPE), such as gloves, to minimize exposure, aligning with oncology safety standards. Crushing these medications is contraindicated, as it increases the risk of aerosolizing toxic particles, endangering both nurse and client many are labeled do not crush.' Giving one at a time with water isn't necessary unless specified and doesn't address safety. Assuming no precautions are needed ignores the drugs' hazardous nature, risking occupational exposure. Using PPE ensures safe administration, protects the nurse's health, and maintains the medication's integrity, reflecting best practices in cancer care where handling precautions are non-negotiable.
Which of these pulmonary conditions is most likely to be seen with a CD4 count between 200 and 500 ?
- A. pulmonary TB
- B. CMV
- C. PCP
- D. Kaposi sarcoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CD4 200-500 TB sneaks in, lungs ripe before deeper drops. CMV, PCP crave <200; Kaposi's skin-first; cryptococcus hits brains more. Nurses clock TB's early strike, a chronic lung foe at this immune ledge.
As per Johnson and Chang (2014) which of the following is not a component of the Chronic Care Model?
- A. Person centred care
- B. Population health approach
- C. Community setting, collaborative across both primary and secondary care
- D. Reactive, symptom driven
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Chronic Care Model thrives on proactive pillars person-centered focus, population health, and community-primary-secondary teamwork aiming to preempt, not just patch, chronic woes. Reactive, symptom-driven care's old-school, clashing with this forward lean. Nurses ditch that lag, embracing prevention, a model shift for chronic mastery.
The body has several mechanisms to increase the blood glucose level in case of hypoglycaemia. Question: Which of the following options best describes the role of glucagon and adrenaline in hypoglycaemia?
- A. Glucagon and adrenaline stimulate glycogenolysis in the liver
- B. Glucagon and adrenaline inhibit the insulin-stimulated glucose uptake in the muscles
- C. Glucagon stimulates glycogen synthase and adrenaline stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver
- D. Glucagon and adrenaline stimulate glycogen synthase en adrenaline stimulates glycogenolysis in the muscles
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypo hits glucagon and adrenaline rip glycogen apart in liver, sugar surges. No muscle block, no synthase flip straight breakdown's the play nurses watch this, a chronic rescue duo.