Patient Haydee comes to the perinatal unit of Hospital DEE. Nurse Arcee does through SCREENING assessment. Which is the Least screening assessment to be used by the nurse/
- A. Physical examination
- B. Radiologic procedures
- C. Interview
- D. Laboratory review
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Radiologic procedures are typically not used as the least screening assessment by nurses in a perinatal unit. The nurse's initial screening assessments usually focus on gathering information through techniques such as physical examination, interviews, and reviewing laboratory results. Radiologic procedures, such as X-rays or CT scans, are usually ordered by physicians once a more specific diagnostic need has been identified, based on the initial screening assessments performed by the nurse. Therefore, in this scenario, the least screening assessment to be used by the nurse would be radiologic procedures.
You may also like to solve these questions
The BEST result of health education process is
- A. It influences and changes behavior
- B. It provides new input
- C. Update others
- D. Information transfer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best result of a health education process is when it successfully influences and changes behaviors towards positive health outcomes. Providing new input, updating others, and information transfer are important components of health education, but the ultimate goal is to effect behavior change. When individuals are able to internalize and apply the knowledge gained from health education to make healthier choices in their daily lives, the process can be considered successful. Therefore, the most desirable outcome of health education is the behavioral change that leads to improved health and well-being.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed albuterol (salbutamol) inhaler as a rescue medication. Which of the following best describes the pharmacological action of albuterol?
- A. Anticholinergic
- B. Beta-adrenergic agonist
- C. Corticosteroid
- D. Methylxanthine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol, also known as salbutamol, is a beta-adrenergic agonist medication commonly used for the treatment of conditions such as asthma and COPD. As a beta-adrenergic agonist, albuterol binds to beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the lungs, causing bronchodilation, which helps to relieve bronchospasms and improve airflow to the lungs. This action leads to the relaxation of smooth muscle in the airways, thus making breathing easier for patients with COPD or asthma. Anticholinergics, corticosteroids, and methylxanthines have different mechanisms of action and are not directly related to the pharmacological action of albuterol in COPD treatment.
A 28-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and infertility. On pelvic examination, tender nodules are palpated along the uterosacral ligaments. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
- A. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
- B. Endometriosis
- C. Adenomyosis
- D. Leiomyomas (uterine fibroids)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Endometriosis is a chronic gynecologic condition characterized by the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, commonly on structures within the pelvis. The classic symptoms of endometriosis include cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and infertility. On pelvic examination, tender nodules or masses may be palpated along the uterosacral ligaments. These nodules are often referred to as "endometriotic implants" or "chocolate cysts." Endometriosis can cause inflammation, scarring, and adhesions in the pelvis, leading to symptoms such as pain and infertility. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is characterized by ovarian dysfunction and hormonal imbalances, often leading to irregular periods and symptoms related to excess androgens. Adenomyosis is the presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium of the uterus, leading
A patient presents with chest pain at rest, unrelated to exertion, and not relieved by nitroglycerin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Stable angina
- B. Unstable angina
- C. Acute myocardial infarction
- D. Prinzmetal's angina
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain at rest, which is not relieved by nitroglycerin. The ECG findings in unstable angina typically show ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion. It is considered a medical emergency as it can progress to a myocardial infarction. Stable angina, on the other hand, is chest pain or discomfort that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest or medications like nitroglycerin. Acute myocardial infarction would typically present with ST-segment elevation on ECG, while Prinzmetal's angina is characterized by transient ST-segment elevation due to coronary artery vasospasm.
A patient in the ICU develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) secondary to sepsis. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's respiratory failure?
- A. Initiate lung-protective mechanical ventilation with low tidal volume.
- B. Administer inhaled nitric oxide (iNO) for pulmonary vasodilation.
- C. Perform prone positioning to improve oxygenation.
- D. Recommend high-dose corticosteroid therapy for anti-inflammatory effects.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ** In a patient with ARDS, the priority intervention to manage respiratory failure is to initiate lung-protective mechanical ventilation with low tidal volume. ARDS is characterized by widespread inflammation and injury to the alveoli, leading to impaired gas exchange and severe hypoxemia. Lung-protective ventilation strategies aim to minimize ventilator-induced lung injury by using lower tidal volumes (around 6 mL/kg of predicted body weight) to reduce barotrauma and volutrauma.