Nokea
Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?
- A. Mechanisms of drug action
- B. Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
- C. Distribution of drugs in the organism
- D. Excretion of drug from the organism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics is the study of how drugs interact with the body to produce their effects, focusing on mechanisms of drug action. This includes drug-receptor interactions, signal transduction pathways, and physiological responses. Biotransformation (choice B), distribution (choice C), and excretion (choice D) are aspects of pharmacokinetics, not pharmacodynamics. Pharmacokinetics deals with drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion in the body. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it directly relates to the study of pharmacodynamics.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following would be an appropriate therapeutic adjustment for the patient with hypermagnesemia, vomiting, and heart failure?
- A. Add potassium supplementation and reduce the digoxin dose
- B. Add atropine and reduce the digoxin dose
- C. Increase the furosemide dose and reduce the digoxin dose
- D. Discontinue digoxin and start losartan
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
1. Hypermagnesemia can exacerbate heart failure.
2. Vomiting may further worsen magnesium levels.
3. Digoxin toxicity is a concern in hypermagnesemia.
4. Discontinuing digoxin is crucial to avoid adverse effects.
5. Starting losartan can help manage heart failure without worsening hypermagnesemia.
Summary:
A: Adding potassium may worsen hypermagnesemia.
B: Atropine is not indicated for hypermagnesemia or heart failure.
C: Increasing furosemide may lead to electrolyte imbalances.
D: Discontinuing digoxin and starting losartan is the appropriate therapeutic adjustment.
The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a patient before giving a new order for iron sucrose (Venofer). Which statement regarding the administration of iron sucrose is correct?
- A. The medication is given with food to reduce gastric distress.
- B. Iron sucrose is contraindicated if the patient has renal disease.
- C. A test dose will be administered before the full dose is given.
- D. The nurse will monitor the patient for hypotension during the infusion.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring for hypotension during iron sucrose infusion is crucial due to the risk of anaphylactic reactions. Hypotension is a common early sign of an allergic reaction. Choices A and B are incorrect as iron sucrose is typically given on an empty stomach and is safe for patients with renal disease. Choice C is incorrect as a test dose is not usually required for iron sucrose administration.
A group of medical students is planning to embark on a medical mission to a Third World country where mountain sickness is a possibility for them. Which of the following agents would be an appropriate prophylactic agent to take prior to the trip?
- A. Anticholinergic agent
- B. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
- C. Loop diuretic
- D. ß-Blocker
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, prevents altitude sickness by inducing metabolic acidosis and increasing ventilation.
These histamine H1 antagonists are recognized for as second-generation antihistamines, EXCEPT:
- A. Astemizole
- B. Loratadine (Claritin)
- C. Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
- D. Suprastine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Suprastine, because it is not a second-generation antihistamine. Second-generation antihistamines are known for having minimal sedative effects and longer duration of action compared to first-generation antihistamines. Astemizole, Loratadine, and Cetirizine are all second-generation antihistamines with these characteristics. Suprastine, on the other hand, is a first-generation antihistamine and does not meet the criteria for being a second-generation antihistamine. Therefore, it is the exception in this list.
A 61-year-old female is hospitalized for COPD exacerbation. She is obese and not able to ambulate very far on her own. Upon discharge, the physician wants to send her home on heparin to reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis. Why would the physician choose a low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) instead of unfractionated heparin (UFH)?
- A. LMWH is a better inhibitor of thrombin
- B. LMWH carries no risk of bleeding
- C. LMWH does not cause HIT
- D. LMWH is easier to manage for outpatients
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: LMWH (e.g., enoxaparin) offers predictable pharmacokinetics, allowing outpatient management without frequent monitoring, unlike UFH.