Please select a correct statement:
- A. Steroids excreted in maximal amount in evening and night time - between 20-24 h
- B. Steroids maximal excretion is in morning time - between -4-8 h
- C. Steroids maximal secretion is in daytime- between -12-16 h
- D. Steroids decrease sensitivity of vessels and bronchus towards catecholamines
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Steroids peak in the morning (4-8 AM) due to circadian rhythm of cortisol secretion.
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Candesartan and irbesartan are angiotensin receptor blockers that are used to treat hypertension. The therapeutic dose range for candesartan is 4 to 32 mg, as compared to 75 to 300 mg for irbesartan. which of the following regarding this statement is correct?
- A. Candesartan is more potent than is irbesartan
- B. Candesartan and irbesartan have different efficacy
- C. Candesartan is a non competitive antagonist for irbesartan
- D. Irbesartan is a competitive antagonist for candesartan
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lower dose range for candesartan indicates higher potency (lower EC50) compared to irbesartan.
Which of the following sign/symptom would NOT be expected from organophosphate poisoning?
- A. Dry skin and mucous membranes
- B. Increased salivation
- C. Increased bowel sounds
- D. Urinary urgency
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Organophosphates cause wet symptoms (salivation, etc.); dry skin is typical of anticholinergics.
Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen
- A. Not provided in document
- B. Not provided in document
- C. Not provided in document
- D. Not provided in document
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This question lacks options in the document, but based on the answer key (ANS: 4), it is assumed to correspond to the fourth choice if options were present. Tamoxifen has significant interactions with CYP2D6 inhibitors (e.g., SSRIs), which can reduce its efficacy.
All of the following adverse effects commonly occur in glucocorticoid therapy except:
- A. Osteoporosis
- B. Increased risk of infection
- C. Hypotension
- D. Emotional disturbances
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glucocorticoids cause hypertension, not hypotension, due to mineralocorticoid effects and fluid retention.
Which of the following statement is correct for Amantadine?
- A. Has agonistic action on NDMA type of glutamate receptors
- B. It was developed as antiepileptic drug
- C. Acts as a D2 blocker
- D. Produces livedo reticularis as side effect
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Amantadine, an antiviral and antiparkinsonian drug, can cause livedo reticularis (a skin mottling side effect); it blocks NMDA receptors, not agonizes them, and enhances dopamine release, not blocks D2.