Post exposure prophylaxis against Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV):
- A. is probably not effective when commenced 36 hours post exposure
- B. is administered intramuscularly
- C. is generally well-tolerated by patients
- D. when given, precludes the need for follow up serology
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: HIV PEP tolerable pills, not IM, works past 36 hours, needs serology, safe in pregnancy. Nurses dose this chronic shield easy.
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Spirometry is used to determine the severity of COPD and to monitor disease progression. This test measures
- A. The ratio of volume of air the patient can forcibly exhale in 1 second and forced vital capacity
- B. The ratio of residual volume when patient has fully exhaled and forced vital capacity
- C. The ratio of forced vital capacity and volume of air the patient can forcibly exhale in 6 seconds
- D. The ratio of respiratory effort and respiratory rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spirometry sizes COPD FEV1/FVC ratio, air blasted in one second versus all-out capacity, pegs obstruction's depth, tracking decline. Residual's post-exhale, not this; 6-second's off; effort-rate's vague. Nurses lean on this, staging chronic airflow's fade.
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with peripheral artery disease. Which of the following is a common assessment finding?
- A. 4+ pedal pulses
- B. 3+ pedal pulses
- C. Bounding pulses in all 4 extremities
- D. 1+ pedal pulses
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Peripheral artery disease (PAD) clogs arteries, slashing flow 1+ pedal pulses (weak, thready) are typical, reflecting ischemia below blockages. 4+ or 3+ pulses (strong) contradict PAD's hypoperfusion; bounding pulses suggest hyperdynamic states, not occlusion. Nurses expect weak pulses, checking for pain or pallor, key to tracking PAD's limb-threatening march, guiding interventions like revascularization.
Which does not cause genital ulceration?
- A. syphilis
- B. herpes simplex infection
- C. HIV
- D. lymphogranuloma venereum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: HIV no direct ulcers; syphilis, herpes, LGV, chancroid carve sores. Nurses rule this chronic outlier.
The nurse is caring for four clients on a post-surgical unit. The nurse understands that monitoring the client for which post-operative complication takes priority?
- A. Nausea
- B. Constipation
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Urinary retention
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Post-op lungs falter pneumonia from atelectasis or aspiration tops risks, a breathing threat per ABCs over nausea's discomfort. Constipation or retention nag, not kill. Nurses watch breathing, pushing incentive spirometry, a priority catch in this surgical haze.
The role of the nurse and other health professions in chronic disease is to:
- A. Support the person in managing their condition
- B. Provide direction to the person about their treatment
- C. Ensure the person takes their medications and avoids risk factors
- D. Decide on the best approach to manage the condition and direct the implementation of this care
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chronic disease management hinges on patient empowerment, not authoritarian control. Supporting individuals in managing their condition aligns with modern nursing philosophy, fostering self-efficacy through education, emotional support, and resource provision key in texts like Deravin and Anderson (2019). Providing direction implies guidance, but it's less collaborative than support, often overstepping patient autonomy. Ensuring medication adherence and risk avoidance is paternalistic, assuming enforcement over partnership, which conflicts with patient-centered care principles. Deciding and directing care outright disregards patient input, undermining shared decision-making critical for long-term adherence in chronic illness. Support encompasses holistic care physical, psychological, and social enabling patients to navigate their condition, adapt lifestyles, and cope with challenges, reflecting the multidisciplinary team's role in enhancing quality of life rather than dictating it.