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Presence of a turtle’s sign is clearly indicative of
- A. Prolonged labor
- B. Occipito-posterior position
- C. Shoulder dystocia
- D. Shoulder presentation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presence of a turtle sign during delivery is indicative of shoulder dystocia. This occurs when the baby's shoulders get stuck behind the mother's pelvic bones during delivery, leading to difficulty in delivering the baby's shoulders. The turtle sign refers to the retraction of the baby's head back into the birth canal after delivery of the head, resembling a turtle retracting into its shell. This sign is a clear indicator of shoulder dystocia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because prolonged labor, occipito-posterior position, and shoulder presentation do not specifically involve the retraction of the baby's head like in shoulder dystocia.
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Haematinics, dietary advice, and close surveillance are management plans for
- A. Moderate anaemia
- B. Mild anaemia
- C. Severe anaemia
- D. Anaemia prevention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Moderate anaemia. Haematinics, dietary advice, and close surveillance are appropriate management plans for moderate anaemia to improve iron levels and overall health. For mild anaemia, dietary changes alone may be sufficient. Severe anaemia often requires more aggressive treatments like blood transfusions. Anaemia prevention focuses on strategies to avoid developing anaemia rather than managing an existing case.
How can maternal smoking during pregnancy affect fetal development?
- A. Causes low birth weight
- B. Increases the risk of preterm birth
- C. Affects lung development
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Maternal smoking during pregnancy can affect fetal development in multiple ways. Smoking can cause low birth weight by restricting oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, leading to growth issues. It can also increase the risk of preterm birth due to the harmful chemicals in cigarette smoke. Furthermore, smoking can affect lung development in the fetus, leading to respiratory issues. Therefore, the correct answer is D - All of the above, as maternal smoking can have a comprehensive impact on fetal development, including low birth weight, preterm birth, and lung development issues.
Clinical diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an amount of amniotic fluid exceeding
- A. 1500 ml
- B. 3000 ml
- C. 1900 ml
- D. 2500 ml
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3000 ml. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when the amniotic fluid volume exceeds 2000-3000 ml. This amount is considered excessive and can indicate various maternal or fetal health conditions. Choice A (1500 ml) is too low to qualify as polyhydramnios. Choice C (1900 ml) falls within the normal range of amniotic fluid volume. Choice D (2500 ml) is close to the threshold but may not always be considered excessive. Therefore, the correct diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an amniotic fluid volume exceeding 3000 ml.
Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that turned into cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that
- A. The polyps are considered precancerous, but if he has a colonoscopy every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be removed before they become malignant
- B. The primary danger is when there is a family history of colon cancer; he should discuss with his mother and father the presence of any colon cancer in the family
- C. There is no chance that these polyps could become cancerous, and their presence does not require any additional action or concern on his part
- D. He would be best served at this point to discuss with an oncologist the risks and benefits of aggressive versus conservative treatment.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because inflammatory polyps are indeed considered precancerous, meaning they have the potential to develop into cancer over time. By having regular colonoscopies every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be detected early and removed before they have a chance to become malignant. This approach helps in preventing the progression of polyps to cancerous lesions, thus reducing the risk of developing colon cancer.
Choice B is incorrect because while family history is a risk factor for colon cancer, the presence of inflammatory polyps in Mr. Costigan should not be overlooked or solely attributed to family history.
Choice C is incorrect because all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, including inflammatory polyps. Ignoring their presence can lead to missed opportunities for early intervention.
Choice D is incorrect because at this stage, the primary focus should be on surveillance and prevention through regular colonoscopies, rather than jumping into discussions about aggressive treatment options.
Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material T. O. is a 44-year-old female patient who presents for evaluation of sudden, severe upper abdominal pain. She is clear about the onset, which was profound and occurred approximately one hour ago. She denies that the onset had any relationship to food or eating, and she denies nausea or vomiting. On examination, she is lying on her right side with her hips and knees flexed to draw her knees to her chest. Vital signs are stable, but examination reveals involuntary guarding. The abdomen is painful and tympanic to percussion in all quadrants. CBC reveals a white blood cell count of 15,600L. The AGACNP suspects
- A. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
- B. Acute pancreatitis
- C. Perforated peptic ulcer
- D. Mallory-Weiss tear
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pancreatitis. The patient's sudden, severe upper abdominal pain, unaffected by food intake, along with guarding and elevated white blood cell count, are indicative of acute pancreatitis. The patient's positioning (knees to chest) suggests relief from pain, which is characteristic of pancreatitis. A dissecting aortic aneurysm (choice A) typically presents with tearing chest or back pain. Perforated peptic ulcer (choice C) would present with a history of chronic ulcer symptoms. Mallory-Weiss tear (choice D) presents with a history of recent vomiting. Therefore, based on the patient's presentation and findings, acute pancreatitis is the most likely diagnosis.