Nokea
Psychosocial adversities are among the predisposing factors of puerperal psychosis.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. -
- D. -
Correct Answer: T
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Puerperal psychosis is a severe mental health condition occurring postpartum.
2. Psychosocial adversities, such as stress or lack of social support, can trigger or exacerbate mental health issues.
3. Therefore, psychosocial adversities can be predisposing factors for puerperal psychosis.
4. Option A (TRUE) is correct as it aligns with the established relationship between psychosocial factors and mental health.
Summary: Option A is correct because psychosocial adversities can indeed contribute to the development of puerperal psychosis, making it a relevant predisposing factor. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide any rationale or evidence to support their validity.
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Trial of scar is likely to have an auspicious outcome if the
- A. Estimated fetal weight is below 3500 grams
- B. Maternal body mass index is estimated at 27.5
- C. Gestational age is approximately 42 weeks
- D. Maternal age is approximately 42 years
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an estimated fetal weight below 3500 grams indicates a lower risk of complications during childbirth. Higher fetal weight increases the likelihood of shoulder dystocia and birth injuries. Maternal body mass index, gestational age, and maternal age do not directly impact the likelihood of a favorable outcome during a trial of scar.
The earliest onset of cephalohematoma is
- A. Six hours postnatally
- B. Twelve hours postnatally
- C. Eighteen hours postnatally
- D. Immediately after birth
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Six hours postnatally. Cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between a baby's skull and the periosteum. It typically appears several hours after birth due to trauma during delivery, causing bleeding under the periosteum. This allows time for the blood to accumulate and form a distinct swelling, making the onset around six hours postnatally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical timeline for the development of cephalohematoma.
There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton
- A. Is having anterior wall ischemia
- B. Is having an anterior wall infarction
- C. Has a history of anterior wall NSTEMI
- D. Has a history of anterior wall STEMI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of any other abnormal findings suggests that Mr. Thornton is currently experiencing an anterior wall infarction. This is indicated by the localized area of myocardial necrosis due to prolonged ischemia. Option A is incorrect because ischemia would typically present with reversible changes rather than necrosis. Option C is incorrect as NSTEMI would show some abnormal findings. Option D is incorrect as STEMI would show more significant ECG changes and enzyme elevation. In summary, the absence of other abnormalities points towards an acute event like an anterior wall infarction.
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except
- A. Cognitive ability
- B. Functional status
- C. Competency assessment
- D. Frailty score
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Cognitive ability is important for decision-making during surgery.
2. Functional status helps assess the patient's ability to recover post-surgery.
3. Competency assessment ensures the patient can consent to surgery.
4. Frailty score predicts surgical outcomes in geriatric patients.
5. Cognitive ability is not typically assessed preoperatively in the ACS/NSQIP guidelines.
Summary:
- A: Cognitive ability is not typically part of preoperative evaluation.
- B: Functional status is important for post-surgery recovery.
- C: Competency assessment is crucial for informed consent.
- D: Frailty score helps predict surgical outcomes in geriatric patients.
Cord presentation is when the
- A. Umbilical cord lies in front of the presenting part after the membranes have ruptured.
- B. Umbilical cord lies in front of the presenting part before membranes have ruptured
- C. Umbilical cord is tied around the fetal neck.
- D. Umbilical cord has prematurely been detached.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because cord presentation occurs when the umbilical cord lies in front of the presenting part after the membranes have ruptured. This can lead to compression of the cord during labor, affecting fetal oxygenation. Option B is incorrect as it describes cord prolapse, where the cord lies in front of the presenting part before membrane rupture. Option C describes nuchal cord, where the cord is wrapped around the fetal neck. Option D describes cord abruption, where the cord detaches prematurely from the placenta.