Nokea
Pulmonary rehabilitation is one of the most effective interventions in the management of COPD. The primary goals of this program are to:
- A. Ensure the patient eats appropriately, takes their medication as prescribed and exercises every day
- B. Involve the patient in the multidisciplinary team and knows how to manage their condition
- C. Reduce symptoms, improved QOL, increase physical and emotional participation in everyday life
- D. Prevent deterioration, avoid hospitalisation and support the carers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pulmonary rehab reclaims COPD life less wheeze, better QOL, more daily grit, physical and emotional. Diet-meds-exercise is narrow; team play's a means; prevention's a perk, not core. Nurses drive this, a chronic lift.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following statements on NAFLD is false?
- A. Weight loss is the prime way of management
- B. Long-term management is needed
- C. Patients should be referred to specialists for further evaluation
- D. Metformin should be used as first-line treatment in patients with NAFLD and diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Weight loss (5-10%) is prime for NAFLD, long-term care is essential, and specialist referral aids complex cases all true. Statins manage dyslipidemia safely in NAFLD. Metformin, though first-line for diabetes, isn't for NAFLD itself lacking evidence for steatosis reversal making this false. Physicians must clarify this in chronic care planning.
A person is 178 cm high and weighs 89 kg. What is his BMI?
- A. 26
- B. 28
- C. 31
- D. 34
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: BMI's weight over height squared 89 kg ÷ (1.78 m × 1.78 m) ≈ 28. Height in meters, simple math, lands between 25 and 30, overweight, not obese. Nurses crunch this daily, a chronic weight watch pegging 28 spot-on.
The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse's assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?
- A. Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)
- B. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
- C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Non-Hodgkin lymphoma's fast cell turnover, plus recent chemo, primes for TLS dead cells dump potassium, phosphorus, and uric acid, risking kidney failure days post-treatment. SIADH (low sodium) and hypercalcemia (bone mets) are less tied to this timeline. DIC's bleeding chaos isn't lymphoma's usual post-chemo hit. Nurses hunt TLS signs fatigue, nausea, arrhythmias knowing it's a fatal oncology curveball if missed early.
Which statement is true regarding CT and LP in AIDS patients?
- A. they should all have a CT prior to LP
- B. if they have no focal neurology they do not need a CT
- C. if they have a GSC of 15 they do not need a CT
- D. all of the above are true
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: AIDS LP CT skips if no focal signs, full GCS, no fever push; all hold. Blanket CT's overkill nurses weigh risks, a chronic brain check dance dodging pressure flops.
What is the conventional definition of Microalbuminuria?
- A. Albumin excretion between 60 and 600 mg/24 hours
- B. Albumin excretion between 50 and 500 mg/24 hours
- C. Albumin excretion between 40 and 400 mg/24 hours
- D. Albumin excretion between 30 and 300 mg/24 hours
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Microalbuminuria flags early kidney damage 30 to 300 mg/24 hours of albumin marks it, a standard tying subtle leaks to diabetes or hypertension's renal hit. Wider ranges 60-600, 50-500, 40-400 overreach into overt proteinuria; 20-200 dips too low, missing the threshold. This 30-300 zone signals preclinical harm, urging ACE inhibitors or tighter glucose/BP control, a chronic disease marker clinicians lean on to stall progression, precise yet practical.