Nokea
Which of the following is a treatment option for a client with infective endocarditis?
- A. Bedrest
- B. Antimicrobials
- C. Diet modification
- D. Antihypertensive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Infective endocarditis bacterial valve infection needs antimicrobials to kill pathogens like *Streptococcus*, the root cause, halting damage and sepsis. Bedrest aids recovery but doesn't treat. Diet tweaks support health, not infection. Antihypertensives manage pressure, irrelevant to endocarditis's microbial core. Nurses anticipate antibiotics, often IV for weeks, targeting the source, a priority to save valves and lives in this high-mortality condition, aligning with infectious disease protocols.
You may also like to solve these questions
Mr Tan, a 50-year-old with hypertension, sees you for routine review. He reports three gout flares in the past two months relieved with three days of Arcoxia 120 mg OM for each episode. You perform some blood tests, which returns the following results: Creatinine 95 umol/L, eGFR >90 mL/min, Uric acid 460 mmol/L, HbA1c 5.4%, Random hypo-count 7.5 mmol/L. He is currently on Amlodipine 10 mg OM. He does not drink alcohol except one glass of wine once or twice a year on special occasions. His BMI is 20.5 kg/m². Which is the most appropriate next step?
- A. Prescribe NSAIDs standby for gout flare
- B. Offer dietary advice and advise regular exercise only
- C. Prescribe prednisolone standby for gout flare
- D. Discuss urate lowering therapy as he has had >2 gout flares in the past year, ideally with colchicine prophylaxis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Three gout flares in two months with uric acid 460 mmol/L (hyperuricemia) indicate frequent attacks warranting urate-lowering therapy (ULT) like allopurinol, per guidelines (e.g., ACR), especially with >2 flares yearly. Colchicine prophylaxis reduces flare risk during ULT initiation. NSAIDs or prednisolone treat acute flares but don't address recurrence. Diet/exercise alone won't suffice with this frequency and uric acid level. ULT discussion aligns with chronic gout management to prevent joint damage, critical for family physicians.
The home health nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further assessment?
- A. I have frequent muscle aches and pains.'
- B. I rarely have the energy to get out of bed.'
- C. I experience chills after I inject the interferon.'
- D. I take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Interferon's flu-like hell aches , chills , and Tylenol use are par but crushing fatigue flags dose-limiting toxicity, hinting at overdose or depression. Nurses in oncology dig deeper here rarely out of bed' could mean more than side effects, needing med tweaks or psych consult, critical for home care balance.
Which of the following is the surgical treatment of choice for end-stage heart failure?
- A. Cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT)
- B. Percutaneous angiogram
- C. Genetic counseling
- D. Ventricular assist devices (VADs)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: End-stage heart failure, when drugs and pacing fail, leans on ventricular assist devices mechanical pumps aiding circulation, a bridge to transplant or destination therapy. CRT syncs ventricles, less invasive, but VADs tackle severe pump collapse. Angiograms diagnose, not treat; genetic counseling's irrelevant. Nurses prep for VADs, managing post-op risks, the go-to surgical fix in this terminal cardiac scenario.
Choose the CORRECT statement Babies born from mothers with gestational diabetes:
- A. Are at a high risk of being born with diabetes
- B. Are usually hypoglycaemic due to maternal insulin drug therapy
- C. Are usually of higher birth weight
- D. Are always given a glucose challenge test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gestational diabetes fattens babies high maternal sugar pumps fetal growth, a hefty birth norm. They don't inherit diabetes at birth, hypo's rare unless mom's on insulin, tests aren't routine. Nurses track this, a chronic womb echo.
A 66 year old man has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. He has no history of heart disease and diabetes mellitus. His average blood pressure is recorded as 154/82 mmHg. What is the MOST appropriate first line pharmacological therapy?
- A. Angiotensin converting enzyme-inhibitors
- B. Angiotensin receptor blockers
- C. Thiazide diuretics
- D. Calcium channel blockers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: New hypertension at 66, 154/82 no heart or sugar issues thiazide diuretics kick off gentle, effective control, especially in older adults. ACE inhibitors or ARBs fit if kidneys or diabetes pop up; calcium blockers work but aren't first; beta blockers lag unless heart history. Nurses lean on thiazides cheap, proven for this chronic pressure nudge, keeping it simple and safe.