Nokea
Samantha, age 5 years, tells the nurse that she "needs a Band-Aid" where she had an injection. Which is the best nursing action?
- A. Apply a Band-Aid.
- B. Ask her why she wants a Band-Aid.
- C. Explain why a Band-Aid is not needed.
- D. Show her that the bleeding has already stopped.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best nursing action in this scenario is to explain why a Band-Aid is not needed. At 5 years old, Samantha is at an age where she can begin to understand explanations. By providing her with a simple and clear explanation, the nurse can help Samantha understand that a Band-Aid is not necessary in this situation. This also promotes education and helps Samantha learn about wound healing and appropriate care. It is important to involve the child in the decision-making process and provide education to foster their understanding of their own health.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client is receiving the cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (thioplex), 60 mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?
- A. It interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication only.
- B. It interferes with ribonucleic acid (RNA) transcription only.
- C. It interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription.
- D. It destroys the cell membrane, causing lysis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thiotepa is a cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent that exerts its therapeutic effects by interfering with both DNA replication and RNA transcription. The alkylating properties of thiotepa lead to the cross-linking of DNA strands, ultimately inhibiting DNA replication. Additionally, thiotepa can also disrupt RNA synthesis, further affecting protein production and cell function. This combined action on DNA replication and RNA transcription contributes to the cytotoxic effects of thiotepa on rapidly dividing cancer cells.
A community nurse will perform chest physiotherapy for Mrs. Dy every 3 hours. It is important for the nurse to:
- A. slap the chest wall gently
- B. use vibration techniques to move secretions from affected lung areas during the inspiration phase
- C. perform CPT at least two hours after meals
- D. plan apical drainage at the beginning of the CPT session
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Performing chest physiotherapy (CPT) at least two hours after meals is important to prevent potential risks such as vomiting and aspiration. This timing allows for better tolerance of the procedure and decreases the likelihood of complications. By waiting at least two hours after meals, the nurse ensures that the patient's stomach is not full, reducing the risk of regurgitation during the chest physiotherapy session. This practice promotes the safety and well-being of the patient while undergoing this treatment.
An adult is diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation. The nurse should identify that the client is at risk for which of the following nursing diagnosis?
- A. Risk for increased cardiac output related to fluid volume excess
- B. Disturbed sensory perception related to bleeding into tissues
- C. Alteration in tissue perfusion related to bleeding and diminished blood flow
- D. Risk for aspiration related to constriction of the respiratory musculature
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a serious condition that involves widespread activation of coagulation leading to microthrombi formation in blood vessels throughout the body. This process can lead to consumption of clotting factors and platelets, causing both bleeding and thrombosis. In the context of DIC, there is a risk for altered tissue perfusion due to the combination of bleeding and microthrombi formation, which can impair blood flow to vital organs and tissues. This condition can ultimately result in organ dysfunction and failure, making it a significant concern in the care of a client with DIC. Therefore, the correct nursing diagnosis for a client with DIC is alteration in tissue perfusion related to bleeding and diminished blood flow.
When educating parents regarding known antecedent infections in acute glomerulonephritis, which of the following should the nurse cover?
- A. Scabies
- B. Impetigo
- C. Herpes simplex
- D. Varicella
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When educating parents regarding known antecedent infections in acute glomerulonephritis, the nurse should cover impetigo. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN) is commonly triggered by a streptococcal infection, such as impetigo or strep throat. Impetigo, a superficial skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes, is a common precursor to APSGN in children. Therefore, educating parents about impetigo and its potential link to acute glomerulonephritis is crucial in helping them recognize and manage their child's health effectively.
The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances?
- A. Glucocortocoids and androgens
- B. Mineralocortiroids and
- C. Catecholamines and epinephrine catecholamines
- D. Norepinephine and epinephrine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The adrenal cortex is the outer portion of the adrenal glands and is responsible for producing hormones known as corticosteroids. Within the corticosteroids, the adrenal cortex produces glucocorticoids (such as cortisol) which are involved in regulating metabolism and the immune response. Additionally, the adrenal cortex produces androgens which are male sex hormones, although they are present in both males and females. Therefore, the correct substances produced by the adrenal cortex are glucocorticoids and androgens (Choice A).