Nokea
Secondary postpartum haemorrhage mostly occurs between the 8th-14th day postpartumly and can extend up to the first 46 days following delivery.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Rarely True
- D. Sometimes True
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because secondary postpartum hemorrhage typically occurs between the 8th-14th day postpartum and can extend up to 6 weeks after delivery. This timeframe aligns with the physiological changes and healing process after childbirth.
Choice B is incorrect because it contradicts the established timeframe for secondary postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice C is incorrect as secondary postpartum hemorrhage is not rare but rather a recognized complication that can occur after childbirth.
Choice D is incorrect as secondary postpartum hemorrhage does not happen sporadically, but rather follows a defined timeframe based on postpartum physiological changes.
You may also like to solve these questions
In which form of hypospadias should circumcision be deferred in order to preserve the prepuce for later surgical repair?
- A. Ventral displacement
- B. Proximal displacement
- C. Midscrotal hypospadias
- D. Meatus proximal to the corona
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In ventral displacement hypospadias, circumcision should be deferred to preserve prepuce for later surgical repair as the prepuce is needed for reconstruction. The prepuce can be used as a tissue graft to correct the hypospadias. In proximal displacement, the urethral opening is closer to the scrotum, making prepuce preservation less critical. Midscrotal hypospadias and meatus proximal to the corona do not typically involve prepuce preservation for surgical repair.
Psychosis during puerperium mostly manifests as
- A. Mania
- B. Bipolar
- C. Depression
- D. Infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Depression. Psychosis during puerperium commonly manifests as postpartum depression, characterized by feelings of extreme sadness, anxiety, and fatigue. This is due to hormonal changes and stress associated with childbirth. Mania (choice A) and bipolar disorder (choice B) are less common during this period. Infection (choice D) is not a typical manifestation of psychosis during puerperium. Overall, postpartum depression is the most prevalent and well-documented form of psychosis in the postpartum period.
The engaging diameter in a face presentation is
- A. Sub-mento vertical diameter
- B. Sub-mento bregmatic diameter
- C. Mento vertical diameter
- D. Sub-occipito bregmatic diameter
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The engaging diameter in a face presentation is the sub-mento vertical diameter. This is the correct answer because it represents the distance from the tip of the chin (mentum) to the highest point on the skull (vertex), which is the most critical diameter for the face to descend through the pelvis during childbirth.
Choice B (Sub-mento bregmatic diameter) is incorrect because it represents the distance from the tip of the chin to the anterior fontanelle, not the highest point on the skull.
Choice C (Mento vertical diameter) is incorrect because it refers to the distance from the chin to the base of the skull, not the highest point on the skull.
Choice D (Sub-occipito bregmatic diameter) is incorrect because it represents the distance from the base of the skull to the anterior fontanelle, not involving the chin.
Bruised and oedematous appearance of the uterus, associated with placenta abruption is collectively referred to as
- A. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
- B. Uterine prolapse
- C. Couvelaire uterus
- D. Asherman’s syndrome
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Couvelaire uterus. This condition refers to the bruised and edematous appearance of the uterus associated with placental abruption. Placental abruption occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall prematurely, leading to bleeding and a compromised blood supply to the uterus. The bruised appearance is due to blood infiltrating the myometrium.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Wernicke’s encephalopathy - This is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency, not related to uterine issues.
B: Uterine prolapse - This is the descent or herniation of the uterus into or beyond the vaginal canal, not related to placental abruption.
D: Asherman’s syndrome - This is characterized by intrauterine adhesions or scar tissue, typically a result of uterine surgery, not associated with placental abruption.
The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
- A. Phenobarbitone
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Magnesium sulphate
- D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice in managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that reduces neuronal excitability and neuromuscular transmission, thus preventing seizures. It also helps in lowering blood pressure and preventing complications. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (B) is used for calcium deficiency, not eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to correct acidosis, not for managing eclampsia.