Nokea
Select the types of pain that are accurately coupled with an example of it. Select all that are correct.
- A. Radicular pain: Pain shooting down the leg from a herniated disc
- B. Central neuropathic pain: Pain from nerve damage after a stroke
- C. Peripheral neuropathic pain: Pain from diabetic neuropathy in the feet
- D. Chronic pain: Pain lasting for more than 3-6 months
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because chronic pain is characterized by lasting for a prolonged period, typically more than 3-6 months, and is not necessarily related to acute injuries like a stab wound to the chest. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately match the type of pain with its corresponding example. Radicular pain is pain that radiates along the nerve path, often from a pinched nerve or herniated disc, not a broken bone. Central neuropathic pain arises from damage to the central nervous system, such as after a stroke, not a leg injury. Peripheral neuropathic pain is caused by damage to the peripheral nerves, such as in diabetic neuropathy, not a fractured leg bone.
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A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of hypocalcemia. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to note in the client?
- A. Twitching
- B. Positive Trousseau's sign
- C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- D. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Twitching. Hypocalcemia often presents with neuromuscular irritability, leading to manifestations such as twitching. Trousseau's sign is actually a positive indicator of hypocalcemia, not negative, making choice B incorrect. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not typically associated with hypocalcemia, making choice C incorrect. Similarly, hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not a common finding in hypocalcemia, making choice D incorrect.
A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. Generalized rash over trunk
- B. Increased temperature
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. Report of photophobia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased level of consciousness. In a client with meningitis, a decreased level of consciousness is a critical finding that should be reported immediately. This could indicate increased intracranial pressure or neurological deterioration, requiring prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are important in the assessment of meningitis but are not as immediately concerning as a decreased level of consciousness. A generalized rash over the trunk can be seen in meningococcal meningitis, an increased temperature is expected due to the inflammatory response, and photophobia is a common symptom due to meningeal irritation.
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with hypovolemia. Which IV solution should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. 3% sodium chloride
- B. 10% dextrose in water
- C. 0.45% sodium chloride
- D. Lactated Ringer's solution
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lactated Ringer's solution is the most suitable IV solution for a patient with hypovolemia. It is a balanced crystalloid solution containing electrolytes such as sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, and lactate, which closely resemble the body's natural fluids. This solution helps to restore intravascular volume and electrolyte balance in hypovolemic patients. Choice A, 3% sodium chloride, is a hypertonic solution used for specific situations like severe hyponatremia or cerebral edema, not typically for hypovolemia. Choice B, 10% dextrose in water, is a hypertonic solution primarily used for providing calories and free water, not for volume expansion. Choice C, 0.45% sodium chloride, is a hypotonic solution used for conditions like hypernatremia or as maintenance fluid, not for hypovolemia.
Which of the following joints normally allows 360-degree circumflexion?
- A. The knee
- B. The shoulder
- C. The elbow
- D. The fingertips
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The shoulder. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of motion, including 360-degree circumflexion. This joint provides flexibility and mobility in various directions. Choice A, the knee joint, primarily allows flexion and extension but does not have a 360-degree circumflexion. Choice C, the elbow joint, is a hinge joint that permits flexion and extension but not circumflexion. Choice D, the fingertips, do not form a specific joint that allows circumflexion; rather, they have joints that enable bending and straightening movements.
What are the fine, down-like hairs on the newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead known as?
- A. Vernix.
- B. Lanugo.
- C. Milia.
- D. Vibrissae.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lanugo is the term used to describe the fine, down-like hairs found on a newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead. These hairs are different from vernix, which is a waxy or cheese-like white substance covering the skin of newborns. Milia are small, white, or yellowish cysts that commonly appear on a newborn's face, while vibrissae are the thick, stiff hairs commonly found around the nose and other parts of the face.