Nokea
Sickle cell an. Is not complicated by:
- A. papillary necrosis
- B. pancreatitis
- C. osteomyelitis
- D. CHF
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B (pancreatitis) being correct:
1. Sickle cell anemia primarily affects red blood cells, leading to vaso-occlusive crises.
2. Pancreatitis is not a known complication of sickle cell anemia.
3. Complications of sickle cell anemia commonly involve organs affected by sickling, such as the bones (osteomyelitis), kidneys (papillary necrosis), and heart (CHF).
Summary:
A: Papillary necrosis - Correct, as it can affect the kidneys in sickle cell anemia.
B: Pancreatitis - Correct, as it is not a typical complication of sickle cell anemia.
C: Osteomyelitis - Incorrect, as it can affect the bones in sickle cell anemia.
D: CHF - Incorrect, as it can affect the heart in sickle cell anemia.
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A patient is presented with fever, vomiting, hypotension and facial edema after his business trip back from Africa. Viral hemorrhagic fever is suspected in this patient. Which of the following family does the suspected virus belong to?
- A. Filovirus
- B. Togavirus
- C. Adenovirus
- D. Bunyavirus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Filovirus. Viral hemorrhagic fevers are caused by viruses within the Filovirus family, which includes Ebola and Marburg viruses. Symptoms such as fever, vomiting, hypotension, and facial edema are characteristic of these infections. Togavirus (choice B) does not typically cause hemorrhagic fevers. Adenovirus (choice C) and Bunyavirus (choice D) are not commonly associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers. Therefore, the suspected virus in this patient most likely belongs to the Filovirus family.
In the laboratory diagnosis of leishmaniasis, the expected parasite stage in vitro is
- A. Amastigote
- B. Promastigote
- C. Trypomastigote
- D. Schizont
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Promastigote. In the laboratory diagnosis of leishmaniasis, the parasite stage typically observed in vitro is the promastigote stage. This is because promastigotes are the infective form of the parasite found in the sandfly vector. When a sample is taken from a patient, it is cultured in a suitable medium where promastigotes develop. Amastigotes (choice A) are the intracellular form found in the host, not typically observed in vitro. Trypomastigotes (choice C) are the stage found in Trypanosoma species, not Leishmania. Schizonts (choice D) are a stage in the life cycle of Plasmodium species causing malaria, not Leishmania. Promastigotes are the stage most commonly used for laboratory diagnosis and research in leishmaniasis.
Which of the following will be present in chronic bacterial infection?
- A. Neutrophilia
- B. Basophilia
- C. Lymphocytosis
- D. Monocytosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monocytosis. In chronic bacterial infections, monocytosis occurs due to the increased presence of monocytes in response to the persistent infection. Monocytes differentiate into macrophages to help eliminate the bacteria. Neutrophilia (A) is more common in acute bacterial infections. Basophilia (B) is associated with conditions like chronic myeloid leukemia, not bacterial infections. Lymphocytosis (C) is often seen in viral infections or chronic inflammatory conditions, not specifically in chronic bacterial infections.
Which of the following is a cause of secondary neutropaenia in adults?
- A. Congenital
- B. Anti-hypertensive drugs
- C. Part of general pancytopaenia
- D. Familial
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Secondary neutropenia in adults is often a part of general pancytopenia, which involves a decrease in all three blood cell types. This can be caused by factors such as bone marrow suppression from chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or certain medications. Neutropenia is not typically congenital or familial in adults, and anti-hypertensive drugs are not commonly known to directly cause secondary neutropenia. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the common etiology of secondary neutropenia in adults.
An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patient's most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hyperproteinemia
- C. Elevated serum viscosity
- D. Elevated RBC count
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypercalcemia. In multiple myeloma, bone destruction releases calcium into the bloodstream, leading to hypercalcemia. This can result in symptoms like excessive thirst, fatigue, confusion, and kidney issues. Hyperproteinemia (B) is not typically associated with multiple myeloma. Elevated serum viscosity (C) is more related to conditions like Waldenström macroglobulinemia, not multiple myeloma. Elevated RBC count (D) is not a common finding in multiple myeloma and is more suggestive of polycythemia vera.