Nokea
Spermatogonia
- A. are germ cell.
- B. are diploid cell.
- C. are male gametes.
- D. have flagell
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because spermatogonia are indeed germ cells that give rise to sperm cells through the process of spermatogenesis. They are diploid cells, not male gametes. Spermatogonia do not have flagella; instead, mature sperm cells have flagella for motility. So, the correct answer is A because spermatogonia are the precursor cells for sperm cells, they are diploid, and they do not have flagella.
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In the circulatory system of a fetus, which of the following is greater before birth than after birth?
- A. Arterial Po2
- B. Right atrial pressure
- C. Aortic pressure
- D. Left ventricular pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Right atrial pressure. Before birth, the fetal circulatory system has a shunt called the foramen ovale that allows blood to bypass the lungs, resulting in higher pressure in the right atrium. After birth, when the foramen ovale closes, the right atrial pressure decreases.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Arterial Po2 - Typically, arterial Po2 is lower in the fetus due to the placenta's oxygenation, but it increases after birth.
C: Aortic pressure - Aortic pressure remains relatively stable before and after birth.
D: Left ventricular pressure - Left ventricular pressure increases after birth due to the transition from fetal to neonatal circulation.
On inspection of the external male genitalia, the nurse notes which finding as abnormal?
- A. The scrotum is covered with dark rugous skin.
- B. The skin covering the penis is hairless and loose.
- C. The urinary meatus is located on the upper surface of the penis.
- D. The left side of the scrotum hangs slightly lower than the right.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the urinary meatus should be located at the tip of the penis, not on the upper surface. This abnormality may indicate a condition like hypospadias. Option A describes normal scrotum skin. Option B describes normal penile skin. Option D describes a normal anatomical variation in scrotal positioning.
The depression or socket in the pelvic bone into which the head of the femur articulates is called
- A. Glenoid fossa
- B. Mandibular fossa
- C. Jugular fossa
- D. Acetabulum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acetabulum. The acetabulum is the depression in the pelvic bone where the head of the femur articulates. This articulation forms the hip joint. The glenoid fossa (A) is found in the scapula and articulates with the head of the humerus, not the femur. The mandibular fossa (B) is located in the temporal bone and articulates with the mandible, not the femur. The jugular fossa (C) is a groove in the temporal bone for the internal jugular vein, not related to the femur articulation. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it accurately describes the anatomical structure where the femur articulates with the pelvic bone.
Two days before the onset of menstruation, secretions of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) reach their lowest levels. What is the cause of this low level of secretion?
- A. The anterior pituitary gland becomes unresponsive to the stimulatory effect of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
- B. Estrogen from the developing follicles exerts a feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus
- C. The rise in body temperature inhibits hypothalamic release of GnRH
- D. Secretion of estrogen, progesterone, and inhibin by the corpus luteum suppresses hypothalamic secretion of GnRH and pituitary secretion of FSH
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because two days before menstruation, the corpus luteum secretes estrogen, progesterone, and inhibin, which collectively suppress the hypothalamus's secretion of GnRH and the pituitary gland's secretion of FSH and LH. This hormonal feedback loop helps prepare the body for menstruation.
A: The anterior pituitary gland becoming unresponsive to GnRH does not explain the low FSH and LH levels.
B: Estrogen from developing follicles typically exerts a positive feedback on the hypothalamus, not inhibitory feedback.
C: The rise in body temperature does not directly impact FSH and LH levels; it is more related to ovulation.
Which hormone is produced throughout a menstrual cycle?
- A. FSH
- B. estrogen
- C. LH
- D. progesterone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: estrogen. Estrogen is produced throughout the menstrual cycle by the ovaries. It plays a key role in regulating the menstrual cycle, promoting the growth of the uterine lining, and preparing the body for ovulation. FSH and LH are involved in stimulating the ovaries to produce estrogen and progesterone, respectively. Progesterone is mainly produced in the second half of the menstrual cycle, after ovulation, to support pregnancy. Therefore, estrogen is the hormone that is produced consistently throughout the menstrual cycle, making it the correct answer.