Nokea
Strategies to prevent misuse of prescription drugs include:
- A. Using prescription drug monitoring programs
- B. Educating patients about risks
- C. Prescribing the lowest effective dose
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because PDMPs track dispensing, education deters misuse, and lowest doses minimize excess—all proven prevention methods. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one tool. Choice B is wrong by itself because education is just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since dosing is only one strategy.
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The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for that indicates toxicity?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Constipation
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Tremors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should monitor the client for an increased heart rate, as it can indicate a dangerous level of theophylline in the body. Prompt medical attention is required if tachycardia is observed to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, drowsiness, and tremors are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. While theophylline can cause gastrointestinal upset or central nervous system effects, tachycardia is a more specific and serious indicator of toxicity that requires immediate attention.
The healthcare provider assesses a client who has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for cardiac disease. Which electrocardiographic change would be a concern for a client taking a diuretic?
- A. Tall, spiked T waves
- B. A prolonged QT interval
- C. A widening QRS complex
- D. Presence of a U wave
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presence of a U wave is often associated with hypokalemia, a possible side effect of diuretic therapy like furosemide. Hypokalemia can lead to U wave formation on an electrocardiogram, making the presence of U waves a concerning finding in clients taking diuretics. Tall, spiked T waves are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged QT interval is more commonly associated with conditions like Long QT syndrome or certain medications, not specifically with diuretics. A widening QRS complex is usually seen in conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks, rather than being directly related to diuretic use.
Signs of tolerance include:
- A. Needing higher doses for the same effect
- B. Reduced side effects over time
- C. Increased sensitivity to the drug
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because tolerance is defined by needing more drug for the same effect due to body adaptation, per pharmacokinetic principles. Choice B is incorrect as reduced side effects may occur but aren't the definition. Choice C is wrong because sensitivity decreases, not increases. Choice D is incorrect since only A fits.
Risk factors for drug abuse include:
- A. Family history of addiction
- B. Mental health disorders
- C. Peer pressure
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because family history (genetic predisposition), mental health issues (self-medication), and peer pressure (social influence) are all established risk factors, per SAMHSA. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one factor. Choice B is wrong by itself because mental health is just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since pressure is only one element.