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Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is one of the most common causes of death in infants. At what age is the diagnosis of SIDS most likely?
- A. At 1 to 2 years of age
- B. At I week to 1 year of age, peaking at 2 to 4 months
- C. At 6 months to 1 year of age, peaking at 10 months
- D. At 6 to 8 weeks of age
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is most likely to occur between the ages of 1 week to 1 year, with the highest risk period being between 2 to 4 months of age. While SIDS can occur up to the age of 1 year, the peak incidence is during the first 6 months of life. It is important to follow safe sleep practices, such as placing infants on their backs to sleep, to reduce the risk of SIDS during this vulnerable period.
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A nurse is teaching a parent about administration of iron supplements to a 7-month-old infant. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Administer the iron supplement with a dropper toward the side and to the back of the mouth
- B. Administer the iron supplement with feedings.
- C. Your infant's stools may look tarry green.
- D. Your infant may have some diarrhea initially.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administer the iron supplement with a dropper toward the side and to the back of the mouth: This instruction helps ensure that the iron supplement bypasses the taste buds on the front of the tongue, which may reduce the likelihood of a strong taste causing rejection or spitting out by the infant.
The nurse assesses a client shortly after kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the physician immediately?
- A. Serum potassium level of 4.9mEq/L
- B. Temperature of 99.2F (37.3C)
- C. Serum sodium level of 135mEq/L
- D. Urine output of 20mL/hour
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A low urine output of 20mL/hour shortly after kidney transplant surgery is a critical finding that must be reported to the physician immediately. Adequate urine output is essential to ensure proper kidney function and the body's ability to eliminate waste products and regulate electrolyte levels. A urine output of less than 30mL/hour is considered oliguria, which may indicate decreased kidney function or potential complications such as acute kidney injury. Therefore, prompt evaluation and intervention are necessary to prevent further kidney damage or complications in the client.
What is the role of a nurse during scratch test to detect allergies?
- A. Applying the liquid test antigen
- B. Determining the type of allergy
- C. Measuring the length and width of the
- D. Documenting the findings raised wheal
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During a scratch test to detect allergies, one of the key roles of a nurse is to apply the liquid test antigen onto the patient's skin. The liquid test antigen contains small amounts of common allergens that could trigger a reaction in individuals who are allergic to them. By applying the test antigen onto the skin and creating small scratches or pricks, the nurse can observe if the patient develops a raised, red, itchy bump called a wheal at the site of the allergen exposure. This helps in identifying specific allergies and determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.
Which of the ff is a sign or symptom characteristic of the later stages of TB?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Anorexia
- C. Hemoptysis
- D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hemoptysis, which refers to coughing up blood, is a sign characteristic of the later stages of tuberculosis (TB). This symptom occurs when there is significant damage to the lungs due to the progression of the disease. Hemoptysis in TB can indicate advanced disease and the presence of cavities in the lungs where blood vessels may become eroded. It is a serious symptom that often requires immediate medical attention. While fatigue, anorexia, and weight loss are common symptoms of TB, hemoptysis specifically points towards the later stages of the disease and severe lung involvement.
The nurse is caring for a 32-year old client admitted with pernicious anemia. Which set of findings should the nurse expect when assessing the client?
- A. Pallor, bradycardia, and reduced pule
- B. Sore tongue, dyspnea, and weight gain
- C. Angina, double vision, and anorexia
- D. Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is a type of megaloblastic anemia caused by the body's inability to absorb vitamin B12, essential for the production of red blood cells. The characteristic findings associated with pernicious anemia include pallor due to decreased red blood cells, tachycardia as the heart compensates for decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, and a sore tongue (glossitis) due to vitamin B12 deficiency affecting the oral mucosa. Therefore, the nurse should expect to find pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue when assessing a client with pernicious anemia.