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Suzanne is a 10-year-old girl who has been diagnosed as experiencing depression. What is likely to be the most effective way to help Suzanne express her feelings?
- A. Have her participate in a group therapy session with other young children who are depressed
- B. Ask her to draw some pictures about things that shes been thinking about
- C. Arrange for individual psychotherapy sessions with a psychiatrist
- D. Observe her actions but dont seek to draw her out into conversation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Younger children who may have more difficulty verbally expressing feelings may be able to draw them.
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A patient with bulimia nervosa expresses that they feel better after purging. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Encourage the patient to continue purging to maintain weight.
- B. Explain that purging has long-term harmful effects on the body.
- C. Agree that purging can help with weight control and self-esteem.
- D. Tell the patient that purging is an effective method to prevent weight gain.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because purging in bulimia nervosa is a maladaptive behavior with severe health consequences. The nurse should educate the patient about the long-term harmful effects of purging, such as electrolyte imbalances, dental issues, and organ damage. Encouraging the patient to continue purging (A) reinforces the harmful behavior. Agreeing with the patient (C) or suggesting purging as an effective weight management method (D) further perpetuates the unhealthy behavior and fails to address the underlying issues. Overall, educating the patient about the risks of purging is essential in promoting recovery and better health outcomes.
During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin (SHT2) excess will suggest that the client receive:
- A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
- B. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
- C. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
- D. Phenelzine (NardiI)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is the correct choice because it is an atypical antipsychotic that targets serotonin receptors, particularly 5-HT2 receptors known to be involved in negative symptoms of schizophrenia like apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. Olanzapine's mechanism of action helps alleviate these symptoms by modulating serotonin levels in the brain.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Haloperidol and B: Chlorpromazine are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors and are less effective in treating negative symptoms associated with schizophrenia.
D: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia symptoms related to serotonin excess.
A client who is diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder is isolative, does not speak to her peers, and sits through the community meeting without speaking. Her mother describes her as shy and having few friends. Which would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client?
- A. Anxiety related to a new environment as evidenced by isolation and not talking with peers
- B. Impaired social interaction related to unfamiliar environment as evidenced by isolation and not talking with peers
- C. Ineffective coping related to new environment as evidenced by isolation and minimal interaction with others
- D. Disturbed thought processes related to a new environment as evidenced by isolation and minimal interactions with others
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Impaired social interaction related to unfamiliar environment as evidenced by isolation and not talking with peers. This is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client because it accurately reflects the client's behavior of isolation and lack of communication with peers, which are indicative of impaired social interaction.
Rationale:
1. Impaired social interaction is a key characteristic of schizoid personality disorder, as individuals with this disorder tend to be socially isolated and have difficulty forming relationships.
2. The client's behavior of not speaking to peers and sitting through meetings without interaction supports the diagnosis of impaired social interaction.
3. The description of the client by her mother as shy and having few friends further supports the diagnosis of impaired social interaction.
Summary:
A: Anxiety related to a new environment is incorrect because the client's behavior is more indicative of impaired social interaction rather than anxiety.
C: Ineffective coping related to new environment is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest that the client is using maladaptive coping
Which statement best describes postpartum blues?
- A. A rare condition that impacts bonding between mother and baby.
- B. A transient, self-limiting period of sadness after the birth of the baby.
- C. A psychiatric diagnosis similar to dysthymia.
- D. A transient period of sadness that usually moves into postpartum depression.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This definition of postpartum blues (B) differentiates it from dysthymia and postpartum depression. It occurs in 70 percent of new mothers, making it common, transient, and self-limiting.
The nurse who works in a sleep clinic knows that approximately ______% of adults suffer from insomnia.
- A. 10 to 20.
- B. 30 to 40.
- C. 50 to 60.
- D. 70 to 80.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (30 to 40%). Insomnia is a common sleep disorder, affecting around 30-40% of adults. This range reflects the prevalence rates reported in various studies. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they provide prevalence rates that are either too low (A) or too high (C, D) compared to the generally accepted range for insomnia in adults. It is essential for the nurse in a sleep clinic to understand the prevalence of insomnia accurately to provide appropriate care and support to patients.