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The 14-year-old who has GERD is receiving lansoprazole. Which response should the nurse expect if lansoprazole is achieving the desired therapeutic effect?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Increased GI motility
- C. Decreased epigastric pain
- D. Decreased rectal flatulence
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: Lansoprazole would not be expected to change appetite. B: Lansoprazole is not a gastric motility agent. C: Lansoprazole (Prevacid) is a PPI of stomach acid secretion. Decreasing the overall pH allows the gastric mucosa to heal. D: Flatulence is not affected.
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The client taking imipramine is preparing for a summer vacation. Which information should the nurse include when planning client education regarding imipramine? Select all that apply.
- A. Drink additional fluids and add extra fiber to the diet
- B. Stop imipramine if experiencing any unpleasant side effects.
- C. Avoid alcohol, which can cause an additive depressant effect.
- D. Request an “as needed†sleeping pill in the event of insomnia.
- E. Wear sunglasses, protective clothing, and sunscreen while outdoors.
Correct Answer: A,C,E
Rationale: TCAs such as imipramine (Tofranil) may cause constipation, CNS depression when combined with alcohol, and photosensitivity. Increasing fluids and fiber, avoiding alcohol, and using sun protection are appropriate.
The 11-year-old with type 1 DM is learning to use insulin pens for basal-bolus insulin therapy with both a very-long-acting insulin and rapid-acting insulin. Which action by the child should indicate to the nurse that additional teaching is needed?
- A. The child holds the insulin glargine pen against the skin for 10 seconds after administering the correct amount of insulin.
- B. The child counts the number of carbohydrates eaten at breakfast and selects the insulin lispro pen for covering the carbohydrates eaten.
- C. The child counts the number of carbohydrates eaten at lunch and selects the insulin glargine pen for covering the carbohydrates eaten.
- D. The child determines that the blood glucose level at bedtime is within the normal range, eats a piece of turkey, and tells the nurse that coverage is not needed with insulin lispro.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: To ensure that the medication is administered with the insulin pens, the pen is held in place for 10 seconds after delivery of the medication. This action is correct. B: Insulin lispro (Humalog) is rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 5 to 10 minutes. This action is correct. C: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is very-long-acting insulin administered once daily and is not used for covering the number of carbohydrates eaten. This action indicates the child needs additional teaching. D: The rapid-acting insulin lispro (Humalog) is not needed if the glucose level is WNL. Turkey does not contain carbohydrates; insulin is administered to cover only the carbohydrates eaten. This action is correct.
The nurse is developing the teaching plan for the client who is started on amitriptyline. Which information is most appropriate to include?
- A. Discuss a calorie-controlled diet plan suitable to the client's preferences.
- B. Inform about possible sexual dysfunction and be ready to provide support.
- C. Instruct to stop amitriptyline immediately if having a sudden elevation in BP.
- D. Advise to take amitriptyline upon waking up to manage the side effect of insomnia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Weight gain is often a major concern for clients taking TCAs such as amitriptyline (Elavil). A calorie-controlled diet plan will assist in avoiding weight gain.
The nurse is caring for a group of clients all in need of pain medication. The nurse has determined the most appropriate pain medication for each client based on the client's level of pain. Prioritize the order that the nurse should plan to administer the pain medications, beginning with the most potent analgesic for the client with the most severe pain.
- A. Ketorolac 10 mg oral
- B. Fentanyl 0.1 mg IV bolus per patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)
- C. Hydromorphone 5 mg oral
- D. Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV
- E. Propoxyphene 65 mg oral
Correct Answer: B,D,C,A,E
Rationale: B: Fentanyl 0.1 mg IV bolus per PCA. Fentanyl (Sublimaze), the most potent of the medications, is an opioid narcotic analgesic that binds to opiate receptors in the CNS, altering the response to and perception of pain. A dose of 0.1 to 0.2 mg is equivalent to 10 mg of morphine sulfate. D: Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. Morphine sulfate is also an opioid analgesic. This dose is IV and would be fast-acting. C: Hydromorphone 5 mg oral. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid), another opioid analgesic, would be next in priority. The oral dosing of this medication would indicate that the client's pain is less severe than the client receiving fentanyl or morphine sulfate. Hydromorphone 7.5 mg oral is an equianalgesic dose to 30 mg of oral morphine or 10 mg parenteral morphine. A: Ketorolac 10 mg oral. Ketorolac (Toradol) is an NSAID and nonopioid analgesic that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis, producing peripherally mediated analgesia. E: Propoxyphene 65 mg oral. Propoxyphene (Darvon) should be given last. It binds to opiate receptors in the CNS but is used in treating mild to moderate pain. It has analgesic effects similar to acetaminophen's.
The nurse is reviewing the medications for all assigned clients on an inpatient psychiatric unit. The nurse anticipates assessing for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) in clients taking which antipsychotic medication?
- A. Clozapine
- B. Risperidone
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Ziprasidone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Haloperidol (Haldol), a conventional antipsychotic, has a high probability of causing EPS.