The best time for a woman of childbearing age to perform breast self-examination is
- A. during her menstrual period
- B. 2 days before the onset of her menstrual period
- C. 1 week after her menstrual period ends
- D. the day her menstrual period begins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Performing breast self-examination one week after the menstrual period ends is recommended as the breasts are least likely to be tender or swollen.
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The primary spermatocytes:
- A. are formed by spermatogonia mitosis;
- B. have a complete number of chromosomes;
- C. generate secondary spermatocytes;
- D. are diploid cells;
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because primary spermatocytes are diploid cells, containing a complete set of chromosomes (46 in humans). They are formed by spermatogonia through a process called meiosis. During meiosis, the primary spermatocytes undergo two divisions to generate haploid secondary spermatocytes with half the number of chromosomes. Choices A and C are incorrect because primary spermatocytes are formed by spermatogonia undergoing meiosis, not mitosis, and they generate secondary spermatocytes, not the other way around. Choice B is incorrect because primary spermatocytes are diploid, not haploid.
A client with stage IV ovarian cancer and recurrent ascites is admitted to the medical unit for a paracentesis. Which nursing actions included in the plan of care will you delegate to an LPN who has worked on the medical unit for several years?
- A. Obtain a paracentesis tray from the central supply area.
- B. Complete the short-stay client admission form.
- C. Take vital signs every 15 minutes after the procedure.
- D. Provide discharge instructions after the procedure.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Taking vital signs is within the scope of practice for an LPN.
Which of the following could inhibit the initiating labor?
- A. Administration of an antagonist of the actions of progesterone
- B. Administration of luteinizing hormone
- C. Administration of an antagonist of prostaglandin E2 effects
- D. Mechanically dilating and stimulating the cervix
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because prostaglandin E2 plays a key role in initiating labor by promoting uterine contractions. Administering an antagonist of prostaglandin E2 effects would inhibit this process. Choice A is incorrect as progesterone levels decrease to trigger labor. Choice B is incorrect as luteinizing hormone does not directly influence labor initiation. Choice D is incorrect because mechanical dilation does not inhibit labor initiation but rather can facilitate it.
You are caring for a 21-year-old client who had a left orchiectomy for testicular cancer on the previous day. Which nursing activities associated with his care will be best to delegate to a new LPN you are orienting to the surgical unit?
- A. Answer the client's questions about the use of chemotherapy and radiation for testicular cancer.
- B. Administer narcotic analgesic medications to the client for pain.
- C. Teach the client how to perform testicular self-examination on the remaining testicle.
- D. Assess the client's knowledge level about the use of sperm banking.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering medications is within the scope of practice for an LPN.
The testicle is located:
- A. inside a muscular pouch;
- B. inside the scrotum;
- C. at the inguinal canal;
- D. inside the abdominal cavity;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: inside the scrotum. The testicles are located outside the abdominal cavity in a structure called the scrotum. This location is essential for temperature regulation as sperm production requires a slightly lower temperature than the body's core. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the testicles are not inside a muscular pouch, at the inguinal canal, or inside the abdominal cavity.