Nokea
The birth weight of a very low birth weight baby ranges between
- A. 1000-500 gm
- B. 500-1500 gm
- C. 1001-1500 gm
- D. 1500-2000 gm
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (500-1500 gm) because very low birth weight babies typically weigh less than 1500 grams at birth. This range encompasses the common weight range for these babies. Option A (1000-500 gm) is too narrow and excludes babies weighing below 500 grams. Option C (1001-1500 gm) is incorrect as it includes babies weighing over 1500 grams. Option D (1500-2000 gm) is incorrect as it includes babies above the typical weight range for very low birth weight babies.
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An early sign of a ruptured uterus includes
- A. Maternal dehydration
- B. Maternal pyrexia >38˚C
- C. Maternal oliguria
- D. Failure of cervix to dilate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A ruptured uterus can lead to fetal distress and necessitate a cesarean section. Failure of the cervix to dilate is indicative of a potential uterine rupture, as the uterus may not be able to contract effectively due to the rupture. Maternal dehydration (A), pyrexia (B), and oliguria (C) are not specific signs of a ruptured uterus and may be present in various other conditions. Therefore, failure of the cervix to dilate is the most relevant early sign in this scenario.
The term used to describe the situation whereby there is the presence of more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor is
- A. Unstable lie
- B. Fetal malpresentation
- C. Fetal malposition
- D. Compound presentation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound presentation. This term refers to the situation where there is more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor. This can include a hand or arm alongside the head or another body part. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Unstable lie refers to the fetus being in a transverse position. B: Fetal malpresentation indicates an abnormal presentation of the fetus, such as breech or transverse. C: Fetal malposition refers to the fetus being in a suboptimal position, like occiput posterior. Thus, the best choice is D as it specifically describes the scenario of multiple fetal parts on the pelvic brim.
A correct statement about shoulder dystocia is
- A. It is an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head
- B. It is an impaction of the posterior shoulder after delivery of the head
- C. Shoulder dystocia occurs due to compound presentation of the fetus
- D. Shoulder dystocia is not an emergency and resolves on its own effort gradually
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Shoulder dystocia is an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head because the anterior shoulder gets stuck behind the pubic symphysis during childbirth. This can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby if not managed promptly.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Impaction of the posterior shoulder is not referred to as shoulder dystocia; it is the impaction of the anterior shoulder that causes the complication.
C: Shoulder dystocia is not caused by a compound presentation of the fetus, which refers to a situation where more than one fetal part presents at the maternal pelvis simultaneously.
D: Shoulder dystocia is indeed an emergency that requires immediate intervention, as delays can lead to birth injuries and complications. It does not resolve on its own and needs medical assistance.
Which one of the following is involved in the management of cord prolapse?
- A. Placing client on all fours position
- B. Application of fundal pressure
- C. Placing client on Trendelenburg position
- D. Labor augmentation using oxytocin regimen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Placing client on Trendelenburg position. This helps prevent compression of the cord by moving the presenting part off the cord. Placing the client on all fours (choice A) may worsen cord compression. Application of fundal pressure (choice B) is contraindicated as it can further compress the cord. Labor augmentation with oxytocin (choice D) is not indicated in cord prolapse management as it does not address the immediate risk to the fetus. Trendelenburg position is the recommended intervention to alleviate cord compression and improve fetal oxygenation.
A patient with suspected Cushings syndrome is being evaluated to establish the diagnosis and cause. Patients with an adrenal tumor typically will demonstrate
- A. Low ACTH and low cortisol
- B. Low ACTH and high cortisol
- C. High ACTH and low cortisol
- D. High ACTH and high cortisol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Low ACTH and low cortisol) because in patients with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome, the tumor autonomously produces cortisol, leading to suppression of ACTH secretion from the pituitary. This results in low ACTH levels and high cortisol levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the characteristic hormone levels seen in patients with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome.