Nokea
A postpartum client who delivered via cesarean section expresses concerns about abdominal incision care and the prevention of wound complications. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to promote optimal incision healing?
- A. Providing education on proper incisional wound care techniques
- B. Administering prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infection
- C. Encouraging the use of abdominal binders for support and compression
- D. Instructing the client on the avoidance of heavy lifting and strenuous activity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nursing intervention should prioritize providing education on proper incisional wound care techniques to promote optimal healing of the abdominal incision. This may include instructions on how to clean the incision site, signs and symptoms of infection, and when to seek medical attention. Proper wound care can help prevent complications such as infection and dehiscence, leading to better outcomes for the client. Administering prophylactic antibiotics, encouraging the use of abdominal binders, and instructing the client on activity restrictions are also important interventions, but educating the client on wound care techniques is crucial for their active participation in their recovery process.
You may also like to solve these questions
which is the primary aim of this law?
- A. To enhance the competence of professional nurses
- B. To regulate practice of professional nursing in the country
- C. To facilitate mobility of nurses to other countries
- D. To promote well-being of health workers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary aim of this law is to regulate the practice of professional nursing within the country. By establishing regulations, standards, and guidelines for nursing practice, the law ensures that nurses provide safe and competent care to patients. It also sets forth licensing requirements, scope of practice, and ethical standards to maintain quality and consistency in nursing care delivery. While enhancing the competence of professional nurses, facilitating mobility of nurses, and promoting the well-being of health workers may be important secondary goals, the main focus of the law is to regulate and govern the practice of nursing within the country.
A patient presents with muscle weakness, fatigue, constipation, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Laboratory tests reveal low serum cortisol levels and elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) levels. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Addison's disease
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms described - muscle weakness, fatigue, constipation, hyperpigmentation of the skin, low serum cortisol levels, and elevated ACTH levels - are classic findings in Addison's disease. Addison's disease is a primary adrenal insufficiency characterized by the insufficient production of cortisol and, to some extent, aldosterone. The low cortisol levels result in symptoms such as muscle weakness, fatigue, and skin hyperpigmentation due to increased levels of ACTH stimulating melanin production. In contrast, in conditions like hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and diabetes mellitus, the symptoms and laboratory findings would not fully align with those described in the patient in this scenario.
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and a history of recent surgery or trauma. An echocardiogram reveals a large pericardial effusion with right ventricular collapse during diastole. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Stable angina
- B. Pericardial effusion
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Aortic dissection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The cardiovascular disorder most likely responsible for the symptoms described is a pericardial effusion. A pericardial effusion is an accumulation of fluid within the pericardial space surrounding the heart. When a large pericardial effusion is present, it can lead to compression of the heart chambers, resulting in symptoms such as chest pain and dyspnea.
A patient presents with a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible. Ultrasound imaging demonstrates a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Branchial cleft cyst
- B. Thyroglossal duct cyst
- C. Lymphadenopathy
- D. Parotid gland tumor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible, along with ultrasound imaging findings of a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components, is classic for a branchial cleft cyst. Branchial cleft cysts are congenital anomalies that arise from remnants of the branchial clefts or pouches during embryonic development. They are typically located along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, just below the mandible. Ultrasound imaging often shows a cystic lesion with well-defined borders and hypoechoic content, which is consistent with the described findings. Thyroglossal duct cysts usually present as midline neck masses that move with swallowing or tongue protrusion, not in the location described in the scenario. Lymphadenopathy would present as enlarged lymph nodes that may be tender and associated with systemic symptoms.
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe scrotal pain, swelling, and erythema. Physical examination reveals a tender, swollen, and high-riding testicle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Testicular torsion
- B. Epididymitis
- C. Testicular trauma
- D. Testicular tumor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Given the sudden-onset severe scrotal pain, swelling, and erythema, along with the physical examination findings of a tender, swollen, and high-riding testicle, the most likely diagnosis is testicular torsion. Testicular torsion occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to compromised blood flow to the testicle, causing ischemia and severe pain. It is considered a surgical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and intervention to salvage the affected testicle. Prompt surgical detorsion is necessary to prevent irreversible testicular damage. While epididymitis, testicular trauma, and testicular tumors can also present with scrotal pain and swelling, the presence of a high-riding testicle in this context is highly suggestive of testicular torsion.