Nokea
The classic ketogenic diet is typically initiated with what macronutrient ratio?
- A. 4 g of fat to 1 g of protein and carbohydrate
- B. 4 g of carbohydrate to 1 g protein
- C. 4 g of protein to 1 g of carbohydrate
- D. 4 g of protein to 1 g of fat and carbohydrate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The classic ketogenic diet is initiated with a 4:1 ratio of fat to combined protein and carbohydrates. This high-fat, low-carbohydrate ratio is designed to induce ketosis, a metabolic state where the body uses fat as its primary energy source, which can help reduce seizures in epilepsy.
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Acetylcholine and norepinephrine are two well-known _________.
- A. postsynaptic receptors
- B. enzymes that rapidly inactivate neurotransmitters
- C. drugs of abuse
- D. neurotransmitters
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acetylcholine and norepinephrine are two well-known neurotransmitters that play critical roles in the nervous system. Acetylcholine is involved in muscle contraction, memory, and learning, while norepinephrine regulates attention, arousal, and stress responses. These neurotransmitters bind to specific receptors on postsynaptic neurons, triggering electrical signals that propagate neural communication. Their proper functioning is essential for normal brain and body activities.
Why does a nurse position a patient with an above-the-knee amputation with a delayed prosthetic fitting prone several times a day?
- A. To prevent flexion contractures
- B. To assess the posterior skin flap
- C. To reduce edema in the residual limb
- D. To relieve pressure on the incision site
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prone positioning prevents contractures.
The nurse practitioner conducting a neurological assessment on a patient uses a sterile cotton wisp to lightly touch the patient’s forehead, cheek, and chin. The nurse practitioner is testing the:
- A. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)
- B. Cranial nerve VII (facial)
- C. Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal)
- D. Cranial nerve II (optic)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cranial nerve V (trigeminal). The nurse practitioner is testing the trigeminal nerve's sensory function by using a sterile cotton wisp to assess light touch sensation in the patient's forehead, cheek, and chin. The trigeminal nerve has three branches - ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular - which innervate these areas respectively. By assessing the patient's response to the light touch in these specific areas, the nurse practitioner can determine if the sensory function of the trigeminal nerve is intact.
Summary:
B: Cranial nerve VII (facial) controls facial expression, not sensation.
C: Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) controls tongue movement, not facial sensation.
D: Cranial nerve II (optic) is responsible for vision, not facial sensation.
A patient arrives in the ER with blurred and double vision, muscle weakness, and intolerance of temperature changes. The physician suspects multiple sclerosis. What test would you expect the physician to do in order to confirm his or her suspicions?
- A. CBC with a very low WBC count.
- B. MRI with gadolinium showing demyelination of nerve fibers.
- C. Endocrine function study with a low growth hormone and high T3 and T4.
- D. Fasting glucose test with a result over 300 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: MRI with gadolinium is used to identify demyelination, which is characteristic of multiple sclerosis.
A nursing intervention that would be appropriate to provide respite care?
- A. Help the wife to arrange for adult day care for the patient.
- B. Encourage permanent placement of the patient in the Alzheimer's unit of a long-term care facility.
- C. Refer the wife to a home health agency to arrange daily home nursing visits to assist with the patient's care.
- D. Arrange for hospitalization of the patient for 3 or 4 days so that the wife can visit out-of-town friends and relatives.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adult day care provides temporary relief for caregivers