Nokea
The client diagnosed with acute myeloid leukemia receives a bone marrow transplant. Which medication to prevent graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. A cephalosporin antibiotic, such as ceftazidime
- B. An immunosuppressant, such as cyclosporine
- C. A chemotherapeutic agent, such as cisplatin
- D. Peginterferon alfa-2a for prevention and treatment of hepatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A. Antibiotics such as ceftazidime (Fortaz) are administered to prevent infection. B. GVHD occurs when the T lymphocytes proliferate from the transplanted donor marrow and mount an immune response against the recipient’s tissues. An immunosuppressant such as cyclosporine (Neoral) prevents the immune response. C. Cisplatin (Platinol AQ) is administered mainly to treat metastatic testicular, ovarian, and cervical carcinoma; advanced bladder cancer; and head and neck cancer. D. Interferons such as peginterferon alfa-2a (Pegasys) have antiviral activity, which decrease the progression of hepatic damage associated with hepatitis A and B. This would only be administered if the transplanted cells transmitted the disease. The biological agent interferon is used to treat follicular low-grade lymphomas.
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The client diagnosed with leukemia is scheduled for bone marrow transplantation. Which interventions should be implemented to prepare the client for this procedure? Select all that apply.
- A. Administer high-dose chemotherapy.
- B. Teach the client about autologous transfusions.
- C. Have the family members' HLA typed.
- D. Monitor the complete blood cell count daily.
- E. Provide central line care per protocol.
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: High-dose chemotherapy (A) ablates marrow, HLA typing (C) identifies donors, CBC monitoring (D) tracks counts, and central line care (E) prevents infection. Autologous transfusions (B) are irrelevant (donor marrow used).
The client undergoing intensive chemotherapy for Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is hospitalized with fever and depressed immune system functioning. The nurse is administering filgrastim subcutaneously daily. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the medication’s effectiveness?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Platelet count
- C. Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)
- D. Reed-Sternberg cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A. Epoetin alfa, not filgrastim, is used to treat anemia that is associated with cancer, and its effectiveness would be reflected in the Hgb values. B. Oprelvekin (Neumega), not filgrastim, enhances the synthesis of platelets. C. The nurse should monitor the ANC. Filgrastim (Neupogen) is usually discontinued when the client’s absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is above 1000 cells/mm3. Filgrastim, a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) analog, is used to stimulate the proliferation and differentiation of granulocytes and treat neutropenia. D. Reed-Sternberg cells are found in lymph node biopsy cells and are indicative of Hodgkin’s lymphoma; they are not monitored to determine the effectiveness of filgrastim, which is used to treat neutropenia.
Which sign would the nurse expect to assess in the client diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
- A. Petechiae on the anterior chest, arms, and neck.
- B. Capillary refill of less than three (3) seconds.
- C. An enlarged spleen.
- D. Pulse oximeter reading of 95%.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ITP causes low platelets, leading to petechiae (A). Capillary refill (B) is normal, splenomegaly (C) is not primary, and SpO2 95% (D) is normal.
The client is diagnosed with polycythemia vera. The nurse would prepare to perform which intervention?
- A. Type and crossmatch for a transfusion.
- B. Assess for petechiae and purpura.
- C. Perform phlebotomy of 500 mL of blood.
- D. Monitor for low hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Polycythemia vera requires phlebotomy (C) to reduce blood viscosity. Transfusions (A) worsen hyperviscosity, petechiae (B) are for thrombocytopenia, and Hb/Hct (D) are elevated.
Which client is at highest risk for developing a lymphoma?
- A. The client diagnosed with chronic lung disease who is taking a steroid.
- B. The client diagnosed with breast cancer who has extensive lymph involvement.
- C. The client who received a kidney transplant several years ago.
- D. The client who has had ureteral stent placements for a neurogenic bladder.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Immunosuppression post-transplant (C) increases lymphoma risk (e.g., PTLD). Steroids (A) are lower risk, breast cancer (B) involves metastasis, and stents (D) are unrelated.