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The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Hypertension and hyperglycemia.
- B. Hyperpigmentation and hypotension.
- C. Exophthalmos and tachycardia.
- D. Weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension. Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to low cortisol and aldosterone levels. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, causing melanin deposition. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, leading to sodium and water loss. Choice A is incorrect because Addison's disease does not typically present with hypertension or hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as exophthalmos and tachycardia are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are not common manifestations of Addison's disease.
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The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Drainage of 75 ml in the first hour post-insertion.
- C. Crepitus around the insertion site.
- D. Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal chamber with respiration.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Crepitus around the insertion site. Crepitus suggests subcutaneous emphysema, which can indicate a pneumothorax or air leak. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent further complications.
A: Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is expected and indicates a functioning chest tube system.
B: Drainage of 75 ml in the first hour post-insertion is within the normal range and should be monitored.
D: Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal chamber with respiration is a normal finding indicating the chest tube is functioning correctly.
The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
- B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
- C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
- D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate. The client is showing signs of fluid overload, indicated by tachypnea and bounding pulse. By decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate, the nurse can prevent further fluid overload while maintaining IV access. Discontinuing the IV and applying pressure (choice A) is not necessary unless there is a specific issue with the IV site. Increasing the rate of the current IV solution (choice C) would worsen the fluid overload. Changing the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline (choice D) at the same rate may not effectively address the fluid overload concern.
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Limit your fluid intake while on this medication.
- C. Monitor your blood glucose levels regularly.
- D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor your blood glucose levels regularly. This is important because metformin helps lower blood sugar levels, and monitoring glucose levels helps ensure the medication is effective and the client is not experiencing hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Option A is incorrect because metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is incorrect as metformin does not typically require fluid restriction. Option D is incorrect as metformin does not affect potassium levels. Regularly monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for managing type 2 diabetes effectively.
A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale
- B. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee
- C. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis proximal to the right knee
- D. Optic nerve using an ophthalmoscope
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee. This is the appropriate action because the client presents with warm, edematous right knee and calf, indicating a potential vascular issue like deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Assessing pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee helps evaluate circulation and nerve function, crucial in identifying complications of DVT. Glasgow Coma Scale (A) is used to assess consciousness, not relevant in this case. Assessing proximal pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis (C) may not provide accurate information about circulation distal to the knee. Evaluating the optic nerve (D) using an ophthalmoscope is unrelated to the client's presenting symptoms and medical history.
A highly successful individual presents to the community mental health center complaining of sleeplessness and anxiety over their financial status. What action should the nurse take to assist this client in diminishing their anxiety?
- A. Encourage them to initiate daily rituals.
- B. Reinforce the reality of their financial situation.
- C. Direct them to drink a glass of red wine at bedtime.
- D. Teach them to limit sugar and caffeine intake.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Teach them to limit sugar and caffeine intake.
Rationale:
1. Sugar and caffeine intake can exacerbate anxiety and interfere with sleep due to their stimulant effects.
2. Limiting these substances can help regulate the body's energy levels and reduce anxiety symptoms.
3. By teaching the client to limit sugar and caffeine intake, the nurse is addressing the root causes of the client's sleeplessness and anxiety.
Summary:
A: Encouraging daily rituals may provide structure but does not directly address the physiological effects of sugar and caffeine on anxiety.
B: Reinforcing the reality of the financial situation may increase anxiety rather than alleviate it.
C: Drinking red wine at bedtime is not a recommended solution for managing anxiety and sleeplessness.