Nokea
The patient came for an induction and under which circumstances does the nurse remove prostaglandin from the patient's cervix? SATA
- A. N&V
- B. Late deceleration
- C. Contractions every 90 seconds
- D. Contractions every 5 minutes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A. Nausea and vomiting (N&V) are not typically indications for removing prostaglandin from the patient's cervix during induction. These symptoms are common side effects and can be managed without removing the prostaglandin.
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What is the recommended response for a pregnant client reporting decreased fetal movements?
- A. Encourage the client to lie on her left side
- B. Schedule an immediate ultrasound
- C. Advise monitoring for fetal heart rate decelerations
- D. Instruct the client to monitor movements over the next 48 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to monitor fetal movements can help identify any abnormalities early.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the first stage of labor, undergoing external fetal monitoring, and receiving IV fluid. The nurse observes variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate on the monitor strip. Which of the following is a correct interpretation of this finding?
- A. Variable decelerations are due to umbilical cord compression.
- B. Variable decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency.
- C. Variable decelerations are a result of the administration of IV narcotic analgesics.
- D. Variable decelerations are related to fetal head compression.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate are due to umbilical cord compression. These decelerations are characterized by an abrupt decrease in the fetal heart rate that is variable in duration, depth, and timing in relation to the uterine contraction. They can signify compression of the umbilical cord leading to transient interruption of fetal oxygen supply. It is essential for the nurse to promptly identify variable decelerations and take appropriate actions to alleviate the compression, such as repositioning the client to relieve pressure on the cord.
A client at 36 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movement. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Perform a nonstress test.
- B. Encourage the client to drink orange juice.
- C. Schedule an ultrasound.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A nonstress test evaluates fetal well-being and is the first step in assessing decreased fetal movement.
The nurse is monitoring a client who is 34 weeks ges- dividing?
- A. Trophoblast or inner cell mass that becomes the fetal monitor tracing are a priority for the nurse to placenta
- B. Embryoblast or inner cell mass that becomes the that apply. embryo
- C. Baseline FHR 140, accelerations, late decelerations,
- D. Morula
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of the question, the nurse is monitoring a 34-week gestation client. At 34 weeks, the trophoblast or inner cell mass has already developed into the placenta, which is formed earlier in pregnancy. Therefore, choice A is the most relevant option in this scenario. Trophoblast is critical for implantation and the formation of the placenta, which plays a vital role in supporting the developing fetus by providing oxygen and nutrients. Understanding the different stages of fetal development can help the nurse provide optimal care and monitor for any potential issues that may arise during pregnancy.
The nurse discusses treatment for side effects of perimenopause. What education should be provided?
- A. Menopausal hormone therapy can decrease symptoms of menopause.
- B. Hot flashes are normal, and no one should need treatment for this symptom.
- C. Medications to decrease estrogen can help with insomnia.
- D. Depression is normal, so no treatment is needed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: