Nokea
The client is complaining of nausea, and the nurse administers the antiemetic promethazine (Phenergan), IVP. Which intervention has priority for this client after administering this medication?
- A. Instruct the client to call the nurse before getting out of bed.
- B. Evaluate the effectiveness of the medication.
- C. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.
- D. Tell the client not to eat or drink for at least one (1) hour.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Promethazine causes sedation and orthostatic hypotension; instructing to call before ambulating prevents falls, the priority post-IVP.
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The nurse is hanging 1,000 mL of IV fluids to run for eight (8) hours. The intravenous tubing is a microdrip. How many gtt/min should the IV rate be set?
Correct Answer: 15
Rationale: Microdrip is 60 gtt/mL. Rate: (1,000 mL / 8 hr) x (60 gtt/mL / 60 min) = 125 mL/hr x 1 gtt/min = 15.625 gtt/min, rounded to 15 gtt/min.
The nurse is administering an otic drop to the 45-year-old client. Which procedure should the nurse implement when administering the drops?
- A. Place the drops when pulling the ear down and back.
- B. Place the drops when pulling the ear up and back.
- C. Place the drops in the lower conjunctival sac.
- D. Place the drops in the inner canthus and apply pressure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For adults, pulling the ear up and back straightens the ear canal for otic drops. Down/back is for children, others are for ophthalmic drops.
The client diagnosed with essential hypertension calls the clinic and tells the nurse she needs something for the flu. Which information should the nurse tell the client?
- A. OTC medications for the flu should not be taken because of your hypertension.
- B. If OTC medications do not relieve symptoms within three (3) days, contact the HCP.
- C. Tell the client to ask the pharmacist to recommend an OTC medication for the flu.
- D. Make an appointment for the client to receive the influenza vaccine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OTC flu medications (e.g., decongestants) may raise BP but can be used cautiously; persistent symptoms warrant HCP contact. Total avoidance, pharmacist reliance, or vaccines are less appropriate.
A client confides in the RN that a friend has told her the medication she takes for depression, Wellbutrin, was taken off the market because it caused seizures. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Ask your friend about the source of this information.'
- B. Omit the next doses until you talk with the doctor.'
- C. There were problems, but the recommended dose is changed.'
- D. Your health care provider knows the best drug for your condition.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Wellbutrin was introduced in the U.S. in 1985 and then withdrawn because of the occurrence of seizures in some patients taking the drug. The drug was reintroduced in 1989 with specific recommendations regarding dose ranges to limit the occurrence of seizures. The risk of seizure appears to be strongly associated with dose.
You are caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is on Heparin IV. The latest APTT is 50 seconds. If the laboratory normal range is 16-24 seconds, you would anticipate
- A. maintaining the current heparin dose
- B. increasing the heparin as it does not appear therapeutic
- C. giving protamine sulfate as an antidote
- D. repeating the blood test 1 hour after giving heparin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: maintaining the current heparin dose. The range for a therapeutic APTT is 1.5-2 times the control. Therefore the client is receiving a therapeutic dose of Heparin.