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A 28-year-old patient who has deep human bite wounds on the left hand is being treated in the urgent care center. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
- A. Prepare to administer rabies immune globulin (BayRab).
- B. Assist the health care provider with suturing the bite wounds.
- C. Teach the patient the reason for the use of prophylactic antibiotics.
- D. Keep the wounds dry until the health care provider can assess them.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the patient the reason for the use of prophylactic antibiotics. This is the most important action because human bites can introduce harmful bacteria into the wound, leading to infection. Prophylactic antibiotics help prevent infection in deep human bite wounds.
Choice A is incorrect because rabies immune globulin is not indicated for human bite wounds. Choice B is incorrect because suturing human bite wounds can trap bacteria and increase the risk of infection. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the wounds dry is not sufficient; proper wound cleaning and antibiotic treatment are essential in this case.
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The nurse is assessing a child's weight and height during a clinic visit prior to starting school. The nurse plots the child's weight on the growth chart and notes that the child's weight is in the 95th percentile for the child's height. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day.
- B. Encourage giving two additional snacks each day to the child.
- C. Recommend a daily intake of at least four glasses of whole milk.
- D. Assess for signs of poor nutrition, such as a pale appearance.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day. When a child's weight is in the 95th percentile for their height, it indicates possible overweight or obesity. To address this, the nurse should assess the child's dietary habits to identify any unhealthy eating patterns contributing to excess weight. By questioning the type and quantity of foods eaten, the nurse can provide appropriate guidance on nutrition and healthy eating habits.
Summary:
B: Encouraging additional snacks may further contribute to weight gain and is not recommended without knowing the current eating habits.
C: Recommending a high intake of whole milk may increase calorie intake and potentially worsen the weight concern.
D: Assessing for signs of poor nutrition, such as a pale appearance, is important but not directly addressing the weight concern in this scenario.
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous ibup rofen for pain management. The nurse recognizes which laboratory assessment to be a possaibbirlbe.c soimd/ete set ffect of the ibuprofen?
- A. Elevated creatinine
- B. Elevated platelet count
- C. Elevated white blood count
- D. Low liver enzymes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine. Ibuprofen can cause kidney damage, leading to elevated creatinine levels. This is because ibuprofen is metabolized in the kidneys, and prolonged use can impair kidney function. Elevated platelet count (B), elevated white blood count (C), and low liver enzymes (D) are not typically associated with ibuprofen use. Platelet count and white blood count are more related to inflammation or infection, while low liver enzymes are not a common side effect of ibuprofen.
Conditions that produce acute kidney injury by directly acting on functioning kidney tissue are classified as intrarenal. The most common intrarenal condition is
- A. prolonged ischemia.
- B. exposure to nephrotoxic substances.
- C. acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
- D. hypotension for several hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common intrarenal condition as it directly affects kidney tubules.
2. ATN is characterized by damage to renal tubular cells due to various factors like toxins or ischemia.
3. Prolonged ischemia (choice A) can lead to ATN but is not the most common intrarenal condition.
4. Exposure to nephrotoxic substances (choice B) can cause ATN, but ATN itself is more common.
5. Hypotension for several hours (choice D) can result in ischemia and subsequent ATN, but ATN is still the primary intrarenal condition.
A 10-year-old female patient in ICU receiving chemotherapy has requested that her dog be allowed to visit her. She is currently sharing a room with another patient. The nurse knows that the hospital does allow for pet visits with owners, but has strict guidelines. Which of the following scenarios is most likely to be permitted?
- A. The girls father may bring the dog in on a leash for a 20-minute visit.
- B. The girls sister may bring the dog in with a shirt on (to prevent shedding) for an overnight stay.
- C. The girls mother may bring the dog in on a leash for a visit as long as he has had all his vaccinations.
- D. The dog may be brought in for a brief visit once the girl is moved to a private room.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it follows the hospital's guidelines for pet visits. It allows the dog to be brought in on a leash, which ensures control and safety during the visit. The 20-minute duration is appropriate to limit potential stress on the patient and other individuals in the room. Additionally, having the father bring the dog in maintains consistency with the hospital's policy of pet visits with owners.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not adhere to the hospital's guidelines. Choice B allows for an overnight stay, which is typically not permitted due to potential disruptions and hygiene concerns. Choice C mentions vaccinations but overlooks other important factors like leash control and visit duration. Choice D suggests waiting until the girl is moved to a private room, which may not align with the hospital's policy of allowing pet visits with owners.
The patient diagnosed with acute respiratory distress synd rome (ARDS) would exhibit which symptom?
- A. Decreasing PaO levels despite increased FiO adminis tration
- B. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels
- C. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO administration 2
- D. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in ARDS, there is a severe impairment in gas exchange leading to hypoxemia. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration indicate poor oxygenation, a hallmark of ARDS. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels (Choice B) do not directly correlate with ARDS pathophysiology. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO2 administration (Choice C) is not characteristic of ARDS, as ARDS leads to decreased lung compliance. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation (Choice D) is not a typical finding in ARDS, as hyperventilation is usually present in an attempt to compensate for hypoxemia.