Nokea
The client is exhibiting multifocal premature ventricular contractions. Which antidysrhythmic medication should the nurse anticipate the HCP ordering for this dysrhythmia?
- A. Adenosine.
- B. Epinephrine.
- C. Atropine.
- D. Amiodarone.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Amiodarone is effective for ventricular dysrhythmias like PVCs, per ACLS guidelines. Adenosine, epinephrine, or atropine are used for other rhythms.
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The health care provider has written 'Morphine sulfate 2 mgs IV every 3-4 hours prn for pain' on the chart of a child weighing 22 lb. (10 kg). What is the nurse's initial action?
- A. Check with the pharmacist
- B. Hold the medication and contact the provider
- C. Administer the prescribed dose as ordered
- D. Give the dose every 6-8 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hold the medication and contact the provider. The usual pediatric dose of morphine is 0.1 mg/kg every 3 to 4 hours. At 10 kg, this child typically should receive 1.0 mg every 3 to 4 hours.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving procainamide (Pronestyl) intravenously. It is important for the nurse to monitor which of the following parameters?
- A. Hourly urinary output
- B. Serum potassium levels
- C. Continuous EKG readings
- D. Neurological signs
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continuous EKG readings. Procainamide (Pronestyl) is used to suppress cardiac arrhythmias. When administered intravenously, it must be accompanied by continuous cardiac monitoring by ECG.
A nurse is to collect a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) from a client. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Ask client to cough sputum into container
- B. Have the client take several deep breaths
- C. Provide an appropriate specimen container
- D. Assist with oral hygiene
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Assist with oral hygiene. Obtain a specimen early in the morning after mouth care. The other responses follow this first action: the client should take several deep breaths then cough into the appropriate sterile container to obtain the AFB specimen of the sputum.
A client confides in the RN that a friend has told her the medication she takes for depression, Wellbutrin, was taken off the market because it caused seizures. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Ask your friend about the source of this information.'
- B. Omit the next doses until you talk with the doctor.'
- C. There were problems, but the recommended dose is changed.'
- D. Your health care provider knows the best drug for your condition.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Wellbutrin was introduced in the U.S. in 1985 and then withdrawn because of the occurrence of seizures in some patients taking the drug. The drug was reintroduced in 1989 with specific recommendations regarding dose ranges to limit the occurrence of seizures. The risk of seizure appears to be strongly associated with dose.
The client with postmenopausal osteoporosis is prescribed the bisphosphonate alendronate (Fosamax). Which discharge instruction should the nurse discuss with the client?
- A. The medication must be taken with the breakfast meal only.
- B. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking medication.
- C. The tablet should be chewed thoroughly before swallowing.
- D. Stress the importance of having monthly hormone levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alendronate requires upright posture for 30 minutes post-dose to prevent esophageal irritation, per FDA guidelines. Meal timing, chewing, or hormone levels are incorrect.