Nokea
The client is in end-stage renal disease and is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) via an enema. Which data indicate the medication is effective?
- A. The client has 30 mL/hr of urine output.
- B. The serum phosphorus level has decreased.
- C. The client is in normal sinus rhythm.
- D. The client's serum potassium level is 5 mEq/L.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Kayexalate lowers serum potassium in hyperkalemia; a level of 5 mEq/L (normal) indicates effectiveness. Urine, phosphorus, or rhythm are unrelated.
You may also like to solve these questions
Prior to administering Alteplase (TPA) to a client admitted for a cerebral vascular accident (CVA), it is critical that the nurse assess:
- A. Neuro signs
- B. Mental status
- C. Blood pressure
- D. PT/PTT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: PT/PTT. TPA is a potent thrombolytic enzyme. Because bleeding is the most common side effect, it is most essential to evaluate clotting studies including PT, PTT, APTT, platelets, and hematocrit before beginning therapy.
The nurse is providing education for a client with newly diagnosed tuberculosis. Which statement should be included in the information that is given to the client?
- A. Isolate yourself from others until you are finished taking your medication.'
- B. Follow up with your primary care provider in 3 months.'
- C. Continue to take your medications even when you are feeling fine.'
- D. Continue to get yearly tuberculin skin tests.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most important piece of information the tuberculosis client needs is to understand the importance of medication compliance, even if no longer experiencing symptoms. Clients are most infectious early in the course of therapy. The numbers of acid-fast bacilli are greatly reduced as early as 2 weeks after therapy begins.
The client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 is scheduled for bowel resection in the morning. Which medication should the nurse question administering to the client?
- A. Ticlopidine (Ticlid), a platelet aggregate inhibitor.
- B. Ticarcillin (Timentin), an extended-spectrum antibiotic.
- C. Pioglitazone (Actos), a thiazolidinedione.
- D. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax), a cathartic laxative.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ticlopidine increases bleeding risk, contraindicated pre-surgery. Antibiotics, antidiabetics, or laxatives are appropriate or less risky.
The nurse is assessing the elderly client first thing in the morning. The client is confused and sleepy. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Determine if the client received a sedative last night.
- B. Allow the client to continue to sleep and do not disturb.
- C. Encourage the client to ambulate in the room with assistance.
- D. Notify the health-care provider about the client's status.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sedatives are a common cause of morning confusion in the elderly; determining recent administration guides next steps.
The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who has been treated with quetiapine (Seroquel) for 1 month. Today the client is increasingly agitated and complains of muscle stiffness. Which of these findings should be reported to the health care provider?
- A. Elevated temperature and sweating
- B. Decreased pulse and blood pressure
- C. Mental confusion and general weakness
- D. Muscle spasms and seizures
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevated temperature and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare disorder that can occur as a side effect of antipsychotic medications. It is characterized by muscular rigidity, tachycardia, hyperthermia, sweating, altered consciousness, autonomic dysfunction, and increase in CPK. This is a life-threatening complication.