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The client is receiving atropine, an anticholinergic, to minimize the side effects of routine medications. Which intervention will help the client tolerate this medication?
- A. Teach the client about orthostatic hypotension.
- B. Instruct the client to eat a low-residue diet.
- C. Encourage the client to chew sugarless gum.
- D. Discuss the importance of daily isometric exercises.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atropine causes dry mouth; sugarless gum stimulates saliva, improving tolerance. Hypotension, diet, or exercises are unrelated.
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The client received Narcan, a narcotic antagonist, following a colonoscopy. Which action by the nurse has the highest priority?
- A. Document the occurrence in the nurse's notes.
- B. Prepare to administer narcotic medication IV.
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. Assess the client every 15 to 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Narcan reverses opioids but has a short half-life; frequent assessment (15–30 min) monitors for re-sedation or respiratory depression, the priority.
The client with osteoarthritis is prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Time the medication to be given with meals.
- B. Notify the HCP if abdominal striae develop.
- C. Do not administer if oral temperature is greater than 102°F.
- D. Monitor the liver function tests and renal studies.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: NSAIDs with meals reduce GI irritation, a common side effect. Striae, fever, or lab monitoring are less immediate concerns.
A 48-year-old man is in the emergency room. He has crushing substernal pain and is diaphoretic, apprehensive, and ashen gray in color. The cardiac monitor shows runs of premature ventricular contractions. Which drug is most likely to be given to this client?
- A. Lidocaine
- B. Verapamil
- C. Digitalis
- D. Nitroglycerin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lidocaine is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias, such as premature ventricular contractions, in acute coronary syndrome.
The male client with a chronic urinary tract infection is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). Which statement indicates the client needs more teaching?
- A. I will drink six (6) to eight (8) glasses of water a day.
- B. I am going to have to take this medication forever.
- C. I can stop taking this medication if there is no more burning.
- D. I may get diarrhea with this medication, but I can take Imodium.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stopping Bactrim when symptoms resolve risks incomplete treatment and resistance; full course is needed. Hydration, duration, and diarrhea management are correct.
The client in the intensive care department is receiving 2 mcg/kg/min of dopamine, an inotropic vasopressor. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every two (2) hours.
- B. Assess the client's peripheral pulses every shift.
- C. Use a urometer to assess hourly output.
- D. Ensure the IV tubing is not exposed to the light.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dopamine affects renal perfusion; hourly urine output via urometer monitors efficacy and prevents toxicity. BP, pulses, or light exposure are less critical.