Nokea
The client is taking phenyton (Dilantin) for seizure control. A sample is drawn to determine the serum drug level, and the nurse reviews the results. Which of the following would indicate a therapeutic serum drug range?
- A. 5 to 10 mcg/ml.
- B. 20 to 30 mcg/ml.
- C. 10 to 20 mcg/ml.
- D. 30 to 40 mcg/ml.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (5 to 10 mcg/ml) because this range is typically considered therapeutic for phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Levels below 5 mcg/ml may be subtherapeutic, leading to inadequate seizure control. Levels above 10 mcg/ml can increase the risk of toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are outside the optimal therapeutic range, leading to either ineffective treatment (B, C) or an increased risk of adverse effects (D). Monitoring drug levels helps ensure the medication's effectiveness while minimizing side effects.
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A client with advanced breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which adverse reaction immediately?
- A. Vision changes
- B. Headache
- C. Hearing loss
- D. Anorexia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vision changes. Tamoxifen can cause serious ocular side effects like retinopathy and corneal changes. These adverse reactions can lead to vision impairment or loss, which is crucial to report immediately to prevent permanent damage. Headache (B), hearing loss (C), and anorexia (D) are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and do not pose immediate threats to the client's health compared to vision changes. It is important for the nurse to prioritize educating the client on recognizing and reporting vision changes promptly to ensure timely intervention and prevent irreversible consequences.
Mr. Reyea complains of hearing ringing noises. The nurse recognizes that this assessment suggests injury of the
- A. Frontal lobe
- B. Six cranial nerve (abducent)
- C. Occipital lobe
- D. Eight Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Eight Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear). This nerve is responsible for hearing and balance. Ringing noises indicate a disturbance in hearing function. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Frontal lobe is associated with executive functions, not hearing. B: Six cranial nerve (abducent) controls eye movement. C: Occipital lobe is related to vision, not hearing. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it directly relates to the symptom described.
What common problem is related to outcome identification and planning?
- A. Failing to involve the client in the planning process
- B. Collecting sufficient data to establish a database
- C. Stating specific and measurable outcomes based on nursing diagnoses
- D. Writing nursing orders that are clear and resolve the problem
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Failing to involve the client in the planning process. This is because involving the client in the planning process is crucial for promoting client-centered care and ensuring that the outcomes are realistic and aligned with the client's goals. By engaging the client, the nurse can better understand their preferences and values, leading to more effective planning and goal setting.
Choice B is incorrect as collecting data to establish a database is related to assessment, not outcome identification and planning. Choice C is incorrect as stating specific and measurable outcomes based on nursing diagnoses is actually a key component of effective outcome identification and planning. Choice D is incorrect as writing clear nursing orders, although important, is more related to implementation rather than outcome identification and planning.
A client on hemodialysis is complaining of muscle weakness and numbness in his legs. His lab results are: Na 136 mEq/L, K 5.9 mEq/L, Cl 100 mEq/L, ca 8.5 mg/dl. Which electrolyte imbalance is the client suffering from?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypochloremia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. In hemodialysis, potassium levels can be elevated due to impaired renal excretion. High potassium can lead to muscle weakness and numbness. The client's K level of 5.9 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), confirming hyperkalemia. Na, Cl, and Ca levels are within normal limits, ruling out hypernatremia, hypochloremia, and hypocalcemia as the client's primary electrolyte imbalance. Monitoring and managing hyperkalemia are crucial to prevent life-threatening complications like cardiac arrhythmias.
A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
- A. Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17
- B. Spontaneous abortion at age 19
- C. Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27
- D. Human papilloma virus infection at age 32
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale:
1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer.
2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer.
3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.