Nokea
The client who had a synthetic valve replacement a year ago is hospitalized with unstable angina. IV heparin and nitroglycerin infusions were started, but then nitroglycerin was discontinued after the client’s pain resolved. The HCP prescribes to start oral warfarin 5 mg at 1900 hours. Which is the nurse’s best action?
- A. Administer the warfarin as prescribed
- B. Call the HCP to question starting warfarin
- C. Discontinue heparin and then give warfarin
- D. Hold warfarin until heparin is discontinued
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Both heparin and warfarin (Coumadin) are anticoagulants, but their actions are different. Oral warfarin requires 3 to 5 days to reach effective levels. It is usually begun while the client is still on heparin. Warfarin should be given as prescribed for a synthetic valve to prevent thromboembolism.
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At 0745 hours, the nurse is informed by the HCP that a cardiac catheterization is to be completed on the client at 1400 hours. Which intervention should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Place the client on NPO (nothing per mouth) status.
- B. Teach the client about the cardiac catheterization.
- C. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of 0.9% NaCl.
- D. Witness the client’s signature on the consent form.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A cardiac catheterization is an invasive procedure requiring the client to lie still in a supine position. The client is usually sedated with medication, such as midazolam, during the procedure. To avoid aspiration, the client should be NPO 6 to 12 hours prior to the procedure, making this the priority at 0745 for a 1400 procedure.
The nurse is taking the BP on multiple clients. Which reading warrants the nurse notifying the HCP because the client’s MAP is abnormal?
- A. 94/60 mm Hg
- B. 98/36 mm Hg
- C. 110/50 mm Hg
- D. 140/78 mm Hg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) is calculated as (SBP + 2*DBP)/3. For 98/36 mm Hg: (98 + 2*36)/3 = (98 + 72)/3 = 170/3 ≈ 56.67 mm Hg, which is abnormally low (normal MAP is 70-100 mm Hg), indicating potential hypoperfusion. Other readings yield: A: (94 + 2*60)/3 ≈ 71.33 mm Hg, C: (110 + 2*50)/3 ≈ 70 mm Hg, D: (140 + 2*78)/3 ≈ 98.67 mm Hg, all within or closer to normal range.
The client with a left anterior descending (LAD) 90% blockage has crushing chest pain that is unrelieved by taking sublingual nitroglycerin. Which ECG finding is most concerning and should alert the nurse to immediately notify the HCP?
- A. Q waves
- B. Flipped T waves
- C. Peaked T waves
- D. ST segment elevation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned about ST elevation because it indicates an evolving MI. Q waves suggest a previous MI, flipped T waves indicate ischemia, and peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia, but ST elevation is the most acute and critical finding.
The nurse is assessing the client following an inferior-septal wall MI. Which potential complication should the nurse further explore when noting that the client has JVD and ascites?
- A. Left-sided heart failure
- B. Pulmonic valve malfunction
- C. Right-sided heart failure
- D. Ruptured septum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Right-sided HF produces venous congestion in the systemic circulation, resulting in JVD and ascites (from vascular congestion in the GI tract). Left-sided HF causes pulmonary congestion, pulmonic valve issues cause murmurs, and a ruptured septum causes shock and murmurs, none of which match the findings.
The nurse is assessing the client with an 8-centimeter AAA. Which finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Report of persistent nagging pain in the upper anterior chest
- B. Systolic bruit palpated over the upper abdomen
- C. Edema of the face and neck with distended neck veins
- D. A pulsating mass in the mid to upper abdomen
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Throbbing or pulsating in the abdomen is the sign most indicative of an AAA. Chest pain, edema, and neck vein distention are associated with thoracic aneurysms, and a bruit is auscultated, not palpated.