Nokea
Which condition is a transient self-limiting mood disorder that affects new moms after childbirth?
- A. Postpartum blues
- B. Postpartum depression
- C. Postpartum psychosis
- D. Generalized anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Postpartum blues. This condition is a common, self-limiting mood disorder that affects new moms after childbirth. It is characterized by mild symptoms such as mood swings, weepiness, and irritability, usually resolving within a few weeks. Postpartum depression (B) is more severe and long-lasting, with persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and anxiety. Postpartum psychosis (C) is a rare but serious condition marked by hallucinations, delusions, and extreme mood swings, requiring immediate medical attention. Generalized anxiety disorder (D) is a chronic condition characterized by excessive worry and anxiety unrelated to specific events, different from the transient nature of postpartum blues.
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A client is to receive Pergonal (menotropins) injections for infertility prior to in-vitro fertilization. Which of the following is the expected action of this medication?
- A. Stimulation of ovulation
- B. Prolongation of the luteal phase
- C. Promotion of cervical mucus production
- D. Suppression of menstruation fertilization. Which of the following is the expected action of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stimulation of ovulation. Pergonal contains menotropins, which are hormones that stimulate the ovaries to produce eggs. During in-vitro fertilization, the goal is to retrieve multiple eggs for fertilization, making ovulation stimulation crucial.
Explanation for incorrect choices:
B: Prolongation of the luteal phase - Pergonal does not affect the luteal phase, which occurs after ovulation.
C: Promotion of cervical mucus production - Pergonal does not directly influence cervical mucus production.
D: Suppression of menstruation - Pergonal does not suppress menstruation but rather induces ovulation.
The nurse is preparing a client for induction of labor. What is the purpose of administering oxytocin?
- A. Stimulate uterine contractions.
- B. Relieve pain during labor.
- C. Promote cervical ripening.
- D. Reduce maternal blood pressure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stimulate uterine contractions. Oxytocin is administered to induce labor by increasing the frequency and strength of uterine contractions. This helps progress labor and facilitate delivery. Choice B is incorrect as pain relief is usually achieved through analgesics or anesthesia. Choice C is incorrect because cervical ripening is typically promoted with medications like prostaglandins. Choice D is also incorrect as oxytocin can actually cause a temporary increase in blood pressure.
Which finding in a laboring mother requires immediate intervention?
- A. Contractions occurring every 5 minutes
- B. Late decelerations on fetal heart monitor
- C. Early decelerations on fetal heart monitor
- D. Elevated maternal temperature during labor
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated maternal temperature during labor. This finding indicates a potential infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which can be harmful to both the mother and the baby if not promptly treated. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent complications like sepsis.
Contractions every 5 minutes (A) are within the normal range for active labor. Late decelerations (B) can indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and require monitoring but not immediate intervention unless persistent. Early decelerations (C) are usually benign and do not typically require immediate action.
A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a cesarean birth due to dysfunctional labor. The client states that she is disappointed that she did not have natural childbirth. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. "It sounds like you are feeling sad that things didn't go as planned."
- B. "At least you know you have a healthy baby."
- C. "Maybe next time you can have a vaginal delivery."
- D. "You can resume sexual relations sooner than if you had delivered vaginally."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Empathy - The nurse acknowledges the client's feelings of disappointment, showing empathy and understanding.
Step 2: Validation - By stating "It sounds like you are feeling sad that things didn't go as planned," the nurse validates the client's emotions, making her feel heard and supported.
Step 3: Therapeutic Communication - This response encourages the client to express her feelings further, promoting open communication and trust in the nurse-client relationship.
Summary:
Choice B is incorrect as it dismisses the client's emotional concerns and focuses solely on the baby's health. Choice C is incorrect as it minimizes the client's current experience and may increase feelings of inadequacy. Choice D is incorrect as it is not relevant to the client's emotional needs and may be perceived as insensitive.
A client at 34 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movements. What should the nurse advise first?
- A. Drink a glass of juice and lie down.
- B. Come to the clinic immediately.
- C. Monitor fetal movements for 24 hours.
- D. Call the healthcare provider tomorrow.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drink a glass of juice and lie down. This advice is based on the concept that consuming juice can stimulate fetal movements due to the increase in blood sugar levels. Lying down also helps the client focus on feeling the movements. This initial step is non-invasive and can potentially address the decreased fetal movements promptly. Choices B and D delay action, which can be dangerous if there is a significant issue with the baby. Choice C might lead to unnecessary waiting and potential risks if the fetus is in distress.