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A client at 34 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movements. What should the nurse advise first?
- A. Drink a glass of juice and lie down.
- B. Come to the clinic immediately.
- C. Monitor fetal movements for 24 hours.
- D. Call the healthcare provider tomorrow.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drink a glass of juice and lie down. This advice is based on the concept that consuming juice can stimulate fetal movements due to the increase in blood sugar levels. Lying down also helps the client focus on feeling the movements. This initial step is non-invasive and can potentially address the decreased fetal movements promptly. Choices B and D delay action, which can be dangerous if there is a significant issue with the baby. Choice C might lead to unnecessary waiting and potential risks if the fetus is in distress.
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A client at 10 weeks' gestation reports frequent nausea. What dietary recommendation should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid eating salty snacks.
- B. Drink fluids between meals.
- C. Consume three large meals a day.
- D. Avoid eating protein-rich foods.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Drink fluids between meals. This recommendation helps manage nausea during pregnancy by preventing dehydration, which can worsen symptoms. Consuming fluids between meals also helps maintain hydration and prevents an empty stomach, which can trigger nausea. A: Avoiding salty snacks is not directly related to managing nausea. C: Consuming three large meals a day may worsen nausea due to overeating. D: Avoiding protein-rich foods is not recommended as they are important for fetal development and overall nutrition during pregnancy.
The nurse is preparing a client for induction of labor. What is the purpose of administering oxytocin?
- A. Stimulate uterine contractions.
- B. Relieve pain during labor.
- C. Promote cervical ripening.
- D. Reduce maternal blood pressure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stimulate uterine contractions. Oxytocin is administered to induce labor by increasing the frequency and strength of uterine contractions. This helps progress labor and facilitate delivery. Choice B is incorrect as pain relief is usually achieved through analgesics or anesthesia. Choice C is incorrect because cervical ripening is typically promoted with medications like prostaglandins. Choice D is also incorrect as oxytocin can actually cause a temporary increase in blood pressure.
A client is to receive Pergonal (menotropins) injections for infertility prior to in-vitro fertilization. Which of the following is the expected action of this medication?
- A. Stimulation of ovulation
- B. Prolongation of the luteal phase
- C. Promotion of cervical mucus production
- D. Suppression of menstruation fertilization. Which of the following is the expected action of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stimulation of ovulation. Pergonal contains menotropins, which are hormones that stimulate the ovaries to produce eggs. During in-vitro fertilization, the goal is to retrieve multiple eggs for fertilization, making ovulation stimulation crucial.
Explanation for incorrect choices:
B: Prolongation of the luteal phase - Pergonal does not affect the luteal phase, which occurs after ovulation.
C: Promotion of cervical mucus production - Pergonal does not directly influence cervical mucus production.
D: Suppression of menstruation - Pergonal does not suppress menstruation but rather induces ovulation.
Which intervention should the nurse prioritize for a pregnant client with placenta previa?
- A. Monitor the client for contractions
- B. Prepare for immediate cesarean delivery
- C. Monitor for signs of fetal distress
- D. Encourage the client to remain in bed rest
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare for immediate cesarean delivery. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. Immediate cesarean delivery is the priority to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Monitoring for contractions (A) is important but not the priority. Monitoring for fetal distress (C) is crucial but not the immediate intervention. Encouraging bed rest (D) may be recommended but is not the priority intervention in placenta previa.
A patient has had four vaginal deliveries. What barrier contraceptive method’s efficacy is affected by this history?
- A. internal condom
- B. external condom
- C. cervical cap
- D. contraceptive gel
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: cervical cap. This barrier contraceptive method's efficacy is affected by the patient's history of four vaginal deliveries due to changes in the cervix and vaginal canal post-deliveries. The cervical cap relies on proper placement over the cervix to prevent sperm from entering the uterus. However, after multiple vaginal deliveries, the cervix may become less firm and may have altered shape or size, leading to reduced effectiveness of the cervical cap.
A: Internal condom and B: external condom are not affected by the history of vaginal deliveries as they do not rely on cervical fit for efficacy.
D: Contraceptive gel is not directly affected by the number of vaginal deliveries as it is applied externally and does not rely on cervical anatomy for effectiveness.