Nokea
The clinic nurse has contributed to the teaching plan for the following 6 clients. The nurse reinforces the teaching by instructing which client to avoid the Valsalva maneuver when defecating? Select all that apply.
- A. 22-year-old man with a head injury sustained during a college football game
- B. 30-year-old woman recently hospitalized for reconstructive augmentation mammoplasty
- C. 56-year-old man 2 weeks post myocardial infarction
- D. 68-year-old woman recently diagnosed with pancreatic cancer
- E. 74-year-old man with portal hypertension related to alcohol-induced cirrhosis
- F. 82-year-old woman 1 week post cataract surgery
Correct Answer: A,C,E,F
Rationale: The Valsalva maneuver increases intracranial pressure (head injury), cardiac strain (post-MI), intra-abdominal pressure (portal hypertension), and intraocular pressure (post-cataract surgery), risking complications. Mammoplasty and pancreatic cancer have less direct risks.
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Vital signs
Temperature 99.2 F (37.3 C)
Blood pressure 134/89 mm Hg
Heart rate 98/min
Respirations 19/min
Oz saturation (SpO) 99%
Sedation Awake, alert
A client reports 7 of 10 on the pain scale at 2300 and asks if it is too soon to receive 'another pain pill.' The nurse reviews the medication administration record. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer the hydrocodone/acetaminophen as prescribed
- B. Call the health care provider to request a prescription for a different analgesic
- C. Decrease the dose of hydrocodone/acetaminophen from 2 tablets to 1
- D. Prepare to administer naloxone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pain rated 7/10 warrants administration of the prescribed analgesic if within the dosing interval. No indications suggest overdose (naloxone) or need for a different medication. Reducing the dose may inadequately manage pain.
A 57 year-old male client has a hemoglobin of 10 mg/dl and a hematocrit of 32%. What would be the most appropriate follow-up by the home care nurse?
- A. Ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools
- B. Tell the client to call 911 and go to the emergency department immediately
- C. Schedule a repeat Hemoglobin and Hematocrit in 1 month
- D. Tell the client to schedule an appointment with a hematologist
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools. These values indicate mild anemia, and the first step is to assess for potential sources of blood loss.
The nurse is caring for a client who underwent a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to remove a pituitary adenoma. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
- A. Encourage frequent coughing to prevent pneumonia
- B. Inspect the mouth and perform mouth care every 4 hours
- C. Maintain the head of the bed in a flat position
- D. Perform frequent neurologic checks
- E. Remind the client to avoid using a toothbrush for 10 days
Correct Answer: B,D,E
Rationale: Mouth care prevents infection, neurologic checks monitor for complications (e.g., CSF leak), and avoiding toothbrushing prevents suture disruption. Coughing risks increasing intracranial pressure, and the head of the bed should be elevated to reduce pressure.
A 2-year-old in the emergency department is suspected of having intussusception. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Black, sticky stools
- B. Greasy, foul-smelling stools
- C. Stools mixed with blood and mucus
- D. Thin, 'ribbon-like' stools
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intussusception causes intestinal obstruction, often leading to 'currant jelly' stools (blood and mucus). Black, sticky stools suggest upper GI bleeding. Greasy stools indicate malabsorption. Ribbon-like stools suggest rectal narrowing.
Medication administration record
Allergies: No Known Allergies
Sliding scale blood glucose levels, regular insulin dose
<150 mg/dL (<8.3 mmol/L), O units
150-199 mg/dL (8.3-11.0 mmol/L), 2 units
200-249 mg/dL (11.1-13.8 mmoV/L), 4 units
250-299 mg/dL (13.9-16.6 mmol/L), 6 units
≥300 mg/dL (≥16.7 mmol/L), 8 units and notify health care provider
A client with type 1 diabetes has a prescription for 30 units of insulin glargine at bedtime. Fingerstick blood glucose measurements are prescribed before meals and at bedtime with regular insulin based on a sliding scale. At 9 PM, the client's blood glucose measurement is 180 mg/dL (10.0 mmol/L). What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer 30 units of glargine; give the client a snack, then administer 2 units of regular insulin
- B. Administer 30 units of glargine and 2 units of regular insulin in 2 different injections
- C. Mix 30 units of glargine with 2 units of regular insulin in the same syringe, drawing up the glargine first
- D. Mix 30 units of glargine with 2 units of regular insulin in the same syringe, drawing up the regular insulin first
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The sliding scale indicates 2 units of regular insulin for a glucose of 180 mg/dL. Glargine, a long-acting insulin, should be given as prescribed (30 units). Glargine cannot be mixed with regular insulin in the same syringe due to differing pH levels, so separate injections are required.