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What is an advantage of the internal condom?
- A. It can be used by those who have a latex allergy.
- B. It can be used for repeated acts of intercourse.
- C. It has a lower failure rate than external condoms.
- D. It can be used for pleasure purposes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the internal condom is made of nitrile, which is a non-latex material. This makes it suitable for individuals with latex allergies. Choice B is incorrect because both internal and external condoms can be used for repeated acts of intercourse. Choice C is incorrect because internal condoms do not necessarily have a lower failure rate than external condoms. Choice D is incorrect because while condoms can enhance pleasure during intercourse, the primary purpose of the internal condom is for protection rather than pleasure.
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The nurse provides education regarding male sterilization. What important information is provided?
- A. “Many people have vasectomies reversed.â€
- B. “You will need to return to the office to check for sperm in your ejaculate.â€
- C. “You will be sterile after 3 months.â€
- D. “Vasectomy consent forms must have both partners’ consent.â€
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "You will need to return to the office to check for sperm in your ejaculate." This information is crucial as it ensures the success of the sterilization procedure. By checking for sperm in the ejaculate, the effectiveness of the vasectomy can be confirmed. This step is important to ensure that the individual is indeed sterile and can rely on the procedure for contraception.
Choice A is incorrect because vasectomy reversal is not always successful and should not be assumed. Choice C is incorrect as sterility is not immediate and may take several months after the procedure. Choice D is incorrect as consent forms for vasectomy typically require only the individual undergoing the procedure to give consent.
In summary, choice B is correct because it emphasizes the need for follow-up to confirm sterility, while the other choices provide incorrect or irrelevant information regarding male sterilization.
The client delivered a 4200 g fetus. The physician performed a
midline episiotomy which extended into a 3rd degree laceration. The
client asks the nurse where she tore. Which response is best?
- A. Through your rectal sphincter
- B. Through your vaginal mucosa
- C. Through your cervix
- D. Through your bladder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Through your rectal sphincter. A 3rd degree laceration involves the perineal body and extends through the anal sphincter muscles. This type of laceration can occur with a midline episiotomy during childbirth. The rectal sphincter is a part of the anal canal and can be torn in severe cases. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a 3rd degree laceration does not involve the vaginal mucosa, cervix, or bladder. The tear is specifically related to the rectal area due to the extension of the episiotomy.
What statement by a health-care provider is an example of shared decision making between a health-care provider and a patient?
- A. I'm going to start this medication because it is best for your baby.
- B. Can you agree with me because I am your health-care provider?â€
- C. I understand how the hospital works, and it will be easier for you to just do what is easy for the nurses.â€
- D. Do you feel ready to make a decision after we talked about this medication?â€
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it involves the patient in the decision-making process by asking for their readiness to make a decision after discussing the medication. This approach respects the patient's autonomy and encourages them to actively participate in their healthcare choices.
A is incorrect as it does not involve the patient in the decision-making process but rather imposes the provider's choice. B is incorrect as it uses authority to influence the patient's decision, which is not in line with shared decision making. C is incorrect as it focuses on convenience rather than involving the patient in the decision-making process.
Developing a plan to achieve patient outcomes is included in which step of the CJMM?
- A. prioritizing hypotheses
- B. generating solutions
- C. taking action
- D. evaluating outcomes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: generating solutions. In the CJMM (Clinical Judgment Model in Nursing), developing a plan to achieve patient outcomes falls under the step of generating solutions. This step involves identifying and implementing interventions to address the patient's needs and achieve the desired outcomes. Prioritizing hypotheses (A) is about identifying potential issues, not developing a plan. Taking action (C) is about implementing the plan, not developing it. Evaluating outcomes (D) is the final step where the effectiveness of the plan is assessed, not where the plan is developed. Therefore, B is the correct choice as it specifically focuses on the process of creating a plan to achieve patient outcomes within the CJMM.
The nurse is reviewing a prenatal client’s record. Which history finding increases the risk for preeclampsia?
- A. Advanced maternal age.
- B. History of gestational diabetes.
- C. First pregnancy.
- D. History of anemia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: First pregnancy. Preeclampsia is more common in first pregnancies due to the body's lack of adaptation to the pregnancy. In subsequent pregnancies, the body has already gone through the changes necessary for pregnancy, reducing the risk. Advanced maternal age (A) and history of gestational diabetes (B) are risk factors for other pregnancy complications but not specifically preeclampsia. History of anemia (D) is not directly linked to an increased risk of preeclampsia.