Nokea
The dopamine-psychosis link is based on the observation that
- A. low dopamine levels of activity in the brain seem to produce psychotic symptoms
- B. there are high levels of dopamine activity in the brains of psychotic people
- C. there are high levels of amphetamine in the brains of schizophrenics
- D. dopamine interacts with serotonin creating psychosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated dopamine activity is associated with psychotic symptoms, especially in schizophrenia.
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A nurse is assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings would be a priority for intervention?
- A. Weight loss of 2 pounds over the past week.
- B. Denial of the need for nutrition rehabilitation.
- C. Body image disturbance and self-imposed starvation.
- D. Refusal to participate in social activities.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Body image disturbance and self-imposed starvation. This is a priority because it directly addresses the core issues of anorexia nervosa and poses immediate risks to the patient's health. Body image disturbance contributes to the patient's self-imposed starvation, which can lead to severe malnutrition and other serious complications. Addressing this issue is crucial for the patient's well-being.
A: Weight loss of 2 pounds over the past week is concerning but may not be an immediate priority compared to addressing the underlying psychological issues.
B: Denial of the need for nutrition rehabilitation is important to address but may not pose an immediate threat to the patient's health compared to self-imposed starvation.
D: Refusal to participate in social activities may be a consequence of anorexia nervosa but does not directly address the urgent need to address body image disturbance and self-imposed starvation.
A patient living in community housing for the elderly says, 'I dont go to the senior citizens club. They play cards and talk about the past because thats all they can do.' The nurse analyzes these remarks to represent:
- A. failure to achieve developmental tasks
- B. thinking associated with ageism
- C. hypercritical behavior
- D. paranoid thinking
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ageism is negative stereotyping and devaluation of people based on their age. Older adults might be as guilty of ageism as younger individuals. The other options are not substantiated by the information given in the scenario.
Which of the following behaviors is characteristic of anorexia nervosa?
- A. Binge eating followed by purging.
- B. Self-induced vomiting after meals.
- C. Restricting food intake and an intense fear of gaining weight.
- D. Eating large quantities of food and then exercising excessively.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because anorexia nervosa is characterized by restricting food intake and having an intense fear of gaining weight. This behavior leads to severe weight loss and malnutrition. Choice A is typically associated with bulimia nervosa, where binge eating is followed by purging. Choice B also aligns with bulimia, as self-induced vomiting is a common purging behavior. Choice D describes behaviors more typical of binge eating disorder, where individuals consume large quantities of food followed by excessive exercise. In anorexia nervosa, the primary focus is on severe food restriction and the fear of weight gain, leading to significantly low body weight.
A patient with schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit in an acutely disturbed, violent state. He is given several doses of haloperidol (Haldol) and becomes calm and approachable. During rounds the nurse notices the patient has his head rotated to one side in a stiffly fixed position. His lower jaw is thrust forward and he appears severely anxious. The patient has _____, and the nurse should _____.
- A. A dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin)
- B. Tardive dyskinesia"¦seek a change in the drug or its dosage
- C. Waxy flexibility"¦continue treatment with antipsychotic drugs
- D. Akathisia"¦administer PRN diphenhydramine (Benadryl) PO
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin). This patient is exhibiting symptoms of acute dystonia, a extrapyramidal side effect of haloperidol. Dystonic reactions are characterized by sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal postures. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication that helps alleviate these symptoms by blocking the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Administering benztropine is the appropriate treatment for acute dystonia.
Summary of other choices:
B: Tardive dyskinesia"¦seek a change in the drug or its dosage - Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect that occurs after long-term antipsychotic use, not acutely like in this case.
C: Waxy flexibility"¦continue treatment with antipsychotic drugs - Waxy flexibility is a symptom of catatonia, not a side effect of antipsychotic medications
An elderly client was well until 12 hours ago, when she reported to her family that during the evening she saw strange faces peering in her windows and in the middle of the night awakened to see a man standing at the foot of her bed. She admits to being very frightened. She is presently pacing and somewhat agitated in the examining room. The client's family reports that the client has recently been to the doctor, who made some medication changes, although they are unsure what the changes were. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement at the time of this client's admission?
- A. Interact with the client on an adult to child level.
- B. Place the client in a safe, nonstimulating environment.
- C. Ask client why she thinks someone would be trying to frighten her.
- D. Explain to the family that the client will be restrained for her own good.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Place the client in a safe, nonstimulating environment. This is the most appropriate nursing intervention because the client is experiencing hallucinations and agitation, which could be due to the recent medication changes. Placing the client in a safe, calm environment can help reduce stimulation and provide a sense of security. This intervention addresses the client's immediate needs by ensuring her safety and promoting a sense of comfort.
Incorrect answers:
A: Interact with the client on an adult to child level - This is not appropriate as it does not address the client's current state of distress and could potentially worsen the situation.
C: Ask client why she thinks someone would be trying to frighten her - This is not the priority at this time, as the client is experiencing hallucinations and agitation that need to be managed first.
D: Explain to the family that the client will be restrained for her own good - Restraints should only be used as a last resort and should not be considered