The emergency department (ED) nurse is initiating therapeutic hypothermia in a patient who has been resuscitated after a cardiac arrest. Which actions in the hypothermia protocol can be delegated to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) (select all that apply)?
- A. Continuously monitor heart rhythm.
- B. Check neurologic status every 2 hours.
- C. Place cooling blankets above and below the patient.
- D. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg per nasogastric tube.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg per nasogastric tube.
Rationale: LPNs/LVNs are trained to administer medications, including oral and nasogastric routes. Giving acetaminophen via nasogastric tube is within their scope of practice. LPNs/LVNs should have the knowledge and skills to safely administer this medication as part of the hypothermia protocol.
Summary of other choices:
A: Continuously monitor heart rhythm - This requires specialized training and skills typically within the scope of registered nurses or cardiac monitoring technicians.
B: Check neurologic status every 2 hours - Assessing neurologic status requires critical thinking and clinical judgment, which are typically responsibilities of registered nurses.
C: Place cooling blankets above and below the patient - Positioning and managing cooling devices may require specific training and should be done under the supervision of a registered nurse.
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The nurse is assessing the patient’s pain using the Critical Care Pain Observation Tool (CPOT). Which of the following assessments would indicate the greatest likelihood of pain and need for nursing intervention?
- A. Absence of vocal sounds
- B. Fighting the ventilator
- C. Moving legs in bed
- D. Relaxed muscles in upper extremities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fighting the ventilator. This behavior indicates the patient is experiencing discomfort and struggling against the ventilator, suggesting a high likelihood of pain. The CPOT assesses pain through behaviors like grimacing, vocalization, and muscle tension, which are all present when a patient is fighting the ventilator. Absence of vocal sounds (Choice A) does not necessarily indicate pain as some patients may be silent even when in pain. Moving legs in bed (Choice C) could be due to restlessness rather than pain. Relaxed muscles in upper extremities (Choice D) do not reflect pain as the CPOT focuses on behaviors indicating discomfort.
After a change-of-shift report on a ventilator weaning unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. Patient who failed a spontaneous breathing trial and has been placed in rest mode on the ventilator.
- B. Patient who is intubated and has continuous partial pressure end-tidal CO2 (PETCO2) monitoring.
- C. Patient with central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2) of 69% while on bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP).
- D. Patient who was successfully weaned and extubated 4 hours ago and now has no urine output for the last 6 hours.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Patient who was successfully weaned and extubated 4 hours ago and now has no urine output for the last 6 hours. This patient should be assessed first because the absence of urine output for 6 hours after being extubated could indicate acute kidney injury or other serious complications that need immediate attention. Urine output is a crucial indicator of renal function and can reflect the patient's overall hemodynamic status. In contrast, the other choices do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Choice A involves a patient in rest mode post-failed breathing trial, which does not require immediate assessment. Choice B mentions continuous PETCO2 monitoring, which is important but not as urgent as assessing a patient with no urine output. Choice C describes a patient with a ScvO2 of 69%, which may need monitoring but does not indicate an urgent priority compared to assessing a patient with no urine output after recent extubation.
A physician visits a patient in the ICU while the nurse is out. The patient complains that the pain medication is not effective and that he would like to receive an increased dose. The physician has the nurse paged and consults with him in the hallway regarding the patients request for stronger pain medication. The nurse explains that patient was started on a morphine drip only 20 minutes ago and that the drug has not had time to take effectyet. The physician agrees and tells the patient to give it just a bit more time. Which component of a healthy work environment is most evident in this scenario?
- A. Skilled communication
- B. Appropriate staffing
- C. True collaboration
- D. Recognizing signs of imminent stroke and paging the physician
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: True collaboration. In this scenario, the physician consults with the nurse to understand the situation and collaborates on the best course of action for the patient's care. This demonstrates effective teamwork, communication, and mutual respect between healthcare professionals, which are key components of a healthy work environment.
Choice A (Skilled communication) is not the best answer because while communication between the physician and nurse is important, the focus in this scenario is more on collaboration and teamwork.
Choice B (Appropriate staffing) is not the best answer as the scenario does not specifically address staffing levels but rather the interaction and collaboration between the physician and nurse.
Choice D (Recognizing signs of imminent stroke and paging the physician) is incorrect as it is unrelated to the scenario described, which is about the physician and nurse collaborating on patient care.
The patient is in the critical care unit and will receive dialysis this morning. The nurse will (Select all that apply.)
- A. evaluate morning laboratory results and report abnormal results.
- B. administer the patient’s antihypertensive medications.
- C. assess the dialysis access site and report abnormalities.
- D. weigh the patient to monitor fluid status.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because evaluating morning lab results is crucial to monitor the patient's condition before dialysis. Abnormal results may impact the dialysis treatment plan. Option B is incorrect as administering antihypertensive medications is not directly related to dialysis. Option C is incorrect as assessing the dialysis access site is the responsibility of the dialysis team. Option D is incorrect as weighing the patient is not typically done immediately before dialysis.
What does pulse oximetry measure?
- A. Arterial blood gases
- B. Hemoglobin values
- C. Oxygen consumption
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation in the blood by analyzing the absorption of light by hemoglobin. Oxygen saturation indicates the percentage of hemoglobin molecules carrying oxygen. This is essential for assessing respiratory function and oxygen delivery to tissues. Arterial blood gases (Choice A) directly measure oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood, not specifically oxygen saturation. Hemoglobin values (Choice B) provide information about the amount of hemoglobin present but not its oxygen-carrying capacity. Oxygen consumption (Choice C) is a measure of how much oxygen is used by tissues, not what pulse oximetry directly measures.