The first permanent tooth to erupt is
- A. central incisor at 6 yr
- B. molar at 6 yr
- C. premolar lower canine at 6-7 yr
- D. upper canine at 6-7 yr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first permanent molar typically erupts around 6 years.
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A client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breath cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy?
- A. A Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours
- B. B. Serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L
- C. C. Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg
- D. D. Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chemotherapy can cause fluid and electrolyte imbalances in the body, leading to potential kidney damage and altered urinary output. A low urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours could indicate dehydration or impaired renal function, both of which can be induced by chemotherapy. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing the patient's fluid balance and kidney function during chemotherapy. It is essential to identify and address such imbalances promptly to prevent complications.
A male client age 78, complaints of dizziness, especially when he stands up after sleeping or sitting. The client also informs the nurse that he periodically experiences nosebleeds and blurred vision. Which of the ff conditions should the nurse assess for the client?
- A. Postural hypotension
- B. Postural Hypertension
- C. White coat hypertension
- D. White coat hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client's symptoms of dizziness upon standing up, along with nosebleeds and blurred vision, are suggestive of postural hypotension. Postural hypotension, also known as orthostatic hypotension, is a drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. This drop in blood pressure can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, blurred vision, and in some cases, nosebleeds. It is more common in older adults, like the 78-year-old male client in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should assess for postural hypotension in this client to manage his symptoms and prevent complications.
The nurse is teaching the client about risk factors for diabetes mellitus. Which of the following risk factors for diabetes mellitus is nonmodifiable?
- A. Poor control of blood glucose levels
- B. Current of recent foot trauma
- C. Inappropriate foot care
- D. Advanced age
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Advanced age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for diabetes mellitus. Nonmodifiable risk factors are characteristics or traits that cannot be changed or controlled. In this case, a person's age is a factor that continuously increases as time passes and cannot be altered. Other nonmodifiable risk factors for diabetes mellitus include family history of diabetes and certain ethnic backgrounds. On the other hand, poor control of blood glucose levels, current or recent foot trauma, and inappropriate foot care are examples of modifiable risk factors that can be managed through lifestyle changes and proper medical care.
The MOST common cause of sleeping difficulty in the first 2 months of life is
- A. gastro-esophageal reflux
- B. colic
- C. formula intolerance
- D. developmentally self-resolving sleeping behavior
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Colic is a frequent cause of sleep difficulties in young infants.
A healthy 4-year-old child has a left flank mass. Computerized tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen shows a localized renal mass. Radical nephrectomy is performed; the histology shows clear cell sarcoma of the kidney. The MOST appropriate next step in the management is
- A. CT scan of the chest
- B. CT scan of the brain
- C. bone scan
- D. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clear cell sarcoma of the kidney has a propensity to metastasize to bones, making a bone scan essential.