Nokea
The following topical antifungal drugs include all EXCEPT:
- A. Tolnaftate
- B. Crotamiton
- C. Terbinafine
- D. Ciclopirox
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crotamiton. Crotamiton is not a topical antifungal drug; it is a scabicidal and antipruritic agent used to treat scabies and itching. Tolnaftate (A), Terbinafine (C), and Ciclopirox (D) are all topical antifungal drugs used to treat various fungal skin infections. Tolnaftate is commonly used for athlete's foot, ringworm, and jock itch. Terbinafine is effective against fungal infections like athlete's foot and ringworm. Ciclopirox is used to treat fungal infections like athlete's foot and ringworm as well.
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Which of the following drugs valuable in the treatment of edema and * metabolic alkalosis?
- A. Digoxin
- B. Spironalctone
- C. Dobutamine
- D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acetazolamide. Acetazolamide is a diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase enzyme, leading to increased excretion of bicarbonate ions, thus causing metabolic alkalosis correction and reducing edema. Digoxin (A) is used for heart failure, Spironolactone (B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and Dobutamine (C) is a beta-adrenergic agonist used for heart failure, none of which directly address metabolic alkalosis.
During a vaginal examination of a 38-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous with thick, white, curdlike discharge adhering to the vaginal walls. The woman reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge from her vagina. The nurse knows that these history and physical examination findings are most consistent with which condition?
- A. Candidiasis
- B. Trichomoniasis
- C. Atrophic vaginitis
- D. Bacterial vaginosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The key clues in the question are thick, white, curdlike discharge, intense pruritus, erythematous, and edematous vulva and vagina.
Step 2: These symptoms are classic for candidiasis, a fungal infection caused by Candida species.
Step 3: Candidiasis commonly presents with thick, white discharge, itching, and inflamed vaginal tissues.
Step 4: Trichomoniasis (choice B) typically presents with frothy, greenish-yellow discharge and vaginal itching.
Step 5: Atrophic vaginitis (choice C) is more common in postmenopausal women and presents with thin, watery discharge and vaginal dryness.
Step 6: Bacterial vaginosis (choice D) presents with thin, grayish-white discharge and a fishy odor.
Step 7: Therefore, based on the symptoms described in the question, the correct answer is A: Candidiasis.
Which of the following drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme? *
- A. Lamivudine
- B. Efavirenz
- C. Stavudine
- D. Ritonavir
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ritonavir. Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor that works by inhibiting the HIV protease enzyme, which is crucial for viral replication. This action helps prevent the virus from spreading and multiplying in the body. Lamivudine (A), Efavirenz (B), and Stavudine (C) are not protease inhibitors and work through different mechanisms like nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibition (Lamivudine and Stavudine) and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibition (Efavirenz). Therefore, they do not directly target the HIV protease enzyme like Ritonavir does.
You should take this medication with meals to avoid stomach ulcers.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Maybe
- D. Not mentioned
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Taking medication with meals can help to prevent stomach ulcers by reducing the direct contact of the medication with the stomach lining. Food acts as a buffer, decreasing the likelihood of irritation or ulcer formation. The other choices are incorrect because B: FALSE implies the opposite, C: Maybe lacks a clear stance, and D: Not mentioned does not provide any useful information to answer the question definitively.
The nurse is performing a focused genitourinary and the flank and lower abdomen. The patient is being renal assessment of a patient. Where should the nurse assessed for renal calculi. The nurse recognizes that the assess for pain at the costovertebral angle? stone is most likely in what anatomic location?
- A. At the umbilicus and the right lower quadrant of the
- B. Meatus
- C. Bladder
- D. Ureter
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ureter. The nurse should assess for pain at the costovertebral angle to check for renal calculi because the ureters connect the kidneys to the bladder and flank pain at this angle can indicate ureteral obstruction from a renal stone. Assessing at the umbilicus (choice A) or meatus (choice B) would not provide information specific to renal calculi. Assessing at the bladder (choice C) would be more relevant for bladder issues, not renal calculi.